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Postal Address: P.O. Box 3000 2130 KA Hoofddorp Visiting Address: Saturnusstraat 8-10 The Netherlands Tel.: 31 (0)23 - 5679700 Fax: 31 (0)23 - 5621714 Our reference number: 07/03-15-2 00-L150 01 August 2000 Your reference number: JSA Members NPA Subscribers Re: NPA-FCL 14 on JAR-FCL 1, JAR-FCL 2, JAR-FCL 3 and JAR-FCL 4 This NPA has been developed by the relevant (sub-)committees and is sponsored by the FCL Committee. NPA Content The NPA proposes to amend JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane), JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter), JARFCL 3 (Medical) and JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers). To reflect this, the NPA is divided in 4 parts and each part is dedicated to a specific JAR-FCL document. The subdivision is as follows: • NPA-FCL 14.1 Miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 1 • NPA-FCL 14.2 Miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 2 • NPA-FCL 14.3 Miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 3 • NPA-FCL 14.4 Miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 4 In addition to amendments to the existing material and some new text, the FCL Committee reconsidered the contents of Section 2 of each JAR-FCL, making a distinction between requirements and guidance material as proposed in draft JAR-11. As result of this review, several AMCs (or parts of AMCs) have been moved from Section 2 to Section 1. The NPA also proposes to amend JAR-FCL 1 and JAR-FCL 2 paragraph on “Training organisations and registered facilities” to take into account the comments received of previous NPA consultations and the discussions in the FCL Committee and JAA Committee. A detailed explanatory note describes the proposed changes together with a justification or comment on each subpart of the NPA. Secretary General’s office: Resources and Development Division: 31 (0)23 - 5679741 31 (0)23 - 5679765 Regulation division: Licensing division: Operations division: 31 (0)23 - 5679712 31 (0)23 - 5679733/756 31 (0)23 – 5679743/764 Certification division: Maintenance division: 31 (0)23 - 5679710/766 31 (0)23 - 5679711/780 General The NPA is the standard JAA procedure for consultation with the aviation community. In addition to this JAA process the National Authorities may perform their own consultation. The objective of the NPA consultation is to inform interested parties of the current position and to receive comments on the draft. This means that the draft text is not necessarily the final text. The JAA Committee expects that within the above perspective your organisation will participate efficiently in the NPA consultation. Your organisation is now invited to consider the NPA and to submit comments by 1 November 2000. If no comments from your organisation by that date your agreement will be assumed. Y Morier Regulation Director Copy: O Krueger, FCL Committee Chairman A Mengelberg-Thissen, Licensing Director 2 JOINT AVIATION AUTHORITIES NOTICE OF PROPOSED AMENDMENT (NPA) COMMENT FORM (See reverse side for guidelines) 1. NPA NUMBER: NPA-FCL 14 Requirement paragraph... ACJ/AMJ or AMC/IEM paragraph...... 2. POSITION (see 3.. on the reverse side) Agree / Accept / No comment. Propose different text / general comment (see 3. below). Propose to delete paragraph (see reverse side for explanation). 3. PROPOSED TEXT/COMMENT Reason(s) for proposed text/comment 4. 5. ORGANISATION.. Address.............. SIGNATURE....... Telephone........... Telefax.............. Date: Name................ JAA Form 200 September 1995 Guidelines for the use of the NPA Comment Form 1.. This form should be seen as guidance material for commentors. Its, or any similar form's, use is not mandatory, but is useful for the expeditious examination of comments. 2.. If there is insufficient space on the form, use the blank space on this side or attachments. 3.. Cross out the parts of 2. that are not applicable. In case of disagreement, commentors should be aware that failure to propose a text and explain the reason(s) for this text may well result in the comments being laid aside for lack of understanding. For the same reason, the commentor should explain a proposal to delete a paragraph. 4.. Commentors may copy this form or procure extra copies from JAA Headquarters. 5.. All comments should be sent to the JAA Regulation Director at JAA Headquarters unless otherwise indicated in the NPA. JAA Form 200 September 1995 1. NPA-FCL-14.1 (Aeroplane) NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.001 Definitions and Abbreviations (See IEM FCL 1.001) Addition of a new definition Co-pilot: “Co-pilot” means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the operational regulations under which the flight is conducted, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating. . 1 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.005 Applicability Addition of new paragraph (a)(6) (a) General (6) A licence issued on the basis of training performed outside a JAA Member State, except training performed according to JAR-FCL 1.055(a)(1), shall have an entry to limit the privileges to aircraft registered in the State of licence issue. 2 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.005 Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State. Adjustment to paragraph 2, column 4 (addition of an asterix) 2 Instructor ratings conversion National rating, authorisation or privileges held Experience Any further JAA requirements Replacement JAR–FCL rating (1) (2) (3) (4) as required under JAR– FCL 1 (Aeroplane) for the relevant rating demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority a knowledge of the relevant parts of JAR–FCL 1 (Aeroplane) and JAR–OPS as set out in AMC FCL 1.005 & 1.015 FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A) * FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A) * JAA Member States’ instructors fulfilling all the above replacement requirements, but unable to obtain relevant JAR-FCL licence/rating(s) due to present implementation status of their State of licence issue, may be accepted to instruct for JAR-FCL licence and/or ratings. 3 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.005 & 1.015 Knowledge requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence on the basis of a national licence issued by a JAA Member State or for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States Addition of the titles of paragraphs in Subpart H JAR–FCL Part 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL SUBPART H - INSTRUCTOR RATINGS (Aeroplane) - 1.300 - Instruction - General - 1.305 - Instructor ratings and authorisation – Purposes - 1.310 - Instructor ratings – General - 1.315 - Instructor ratings and authorisations – Period of validity - 1.320 - Flight Instructor rating (aeroplane) (FI(A)) – Minimum age - 1.325 - FI(A) – Restricted privileges - 1.330 - FI(A) – Privileges and requirements - 1.335 - FI(A) – Pre-requisite requirements - 1.340 - FI(A) – Course - 1.345 - FI(A) – Skill - 1.350 - FI(A) – Rating issue - 1.355 - FI(A) – Revalidation and renewal - 1.360 - Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) (TRI(MPA)) – Privileges - 1.365 - TRI(MPA) – Requirements - 1.370 - TRI(MPA) – Revalidation and renewal - 1.375 Privileges Class - 1.380 - CRI(SPA) – Requirements - 1.385 - CRI(SPA) – Revalidation and renewal - 1.390 - Instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (IRI(A)) – Privileges - 1.395 - IRI(A) – Requirements - 1.400 - IRI(A) – Revalidation and renewal - 1.405 - Synthetic flight instructor authorisation (aeroplane) (SFI(A)) – Privileges - 1.410 - SFI(A) – Requirements - 1.415 - SFI(A) – Revalidation and renewal - Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.300 - Requirements for a specific authorisation for instructors not holding a JAR–FCL licence to instruct in a FTO or TRTO outside JAA Member States - Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345 - Arrangements for the flight instructor rating (FI(A)) skill test, proficiency check and oral theoretical knowledge examination - Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345 - Contents of the flight instructor rating (FI(A)) skill test, oral theoretical knowledge examination and proficiency check - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340 - Flight instructor rating (aeroplane) (FI(A)) course rating instructor rating 4 (single-pilot aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) – 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.365 - Course for the type rating instructor rating for multi-pilot aeroplane (TRI) (MPA) - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380 - Course for the single-pilot multi-engine class rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) - Appendix 2 to JAR FCL 1.380 - Course for the single-pilot single engine class rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) - Appendix 1 to JAR FCL 1.395 - Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (IRI(A)) 5 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR-FCL 1.015 Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Adjustment to para (b); adjustment to para (c) - this has been split into two different sub-paragraphs (b) Licences issued by non-JAA States (1) A licence issued by a non-JAA State may be rendered valid at the discretion of the Authority of a JAA Member State for use on aircraft registered in that JAA Member State in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015. Holders of a professional pilot’s licence wishing to exercise professional privileges, shall comply with the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.015. (2) Validation of a professional pilot’s licence and a private pilot licence with instrument rating shall not exceed one year from the date of validation, provided that the basic licence remains valid. Any further validation for use on aircraft registered in any JAA Member State is subject to agreement by the JAA Member States and to any conditions seen fit within the JAA. The user of a licence validated by a JAA Member State shall comply with the requirements stated in JAR–FCL. (3) The requirements stated in (1) and (2) above shall not apply where aircraft registered in a JAA Member State are leased to an operator in a non-JAA State, provided that the State of the operator has accepted for the period of lease the responsibility for the technical and/or operational supervision in accordance with JAR–OPS 1.165. The licences of the flight crews of the non-JAA State operator may be validated at the discretion of the Authority of the JAA Member State concerned, provided that the privileges of the flight crew licence validation are restricted for use during the lease period only on nominated aircraft in specified operations not involving a JAA operator, directly or indirectly, through a wet lease or other commercial arrangement. (c) Conversion of a licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State. (1) A professional licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State may be converted to a JAR–FCL licence provided that an arrangement exists between the JAA and the non-JAA State. This arrangement shall be established on the basis of reciprocity of licence acceptance and shall ensure that an equivalent level of safety exists between the training and testing requirements of the JAA and the non-JAA State. Any arrangement entered into will be reviewed periodically, as agreed by the non-JAA State and the JAA. A licence converted according to such an arrangement shall have an entry indicating the nonJAA State upon which the conversion is based. Other 6 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Member States shall not be obliged to accept any such licence. (2) A private pilot licence issued by a nonJAA State may be converted to a JAR-FCL licence by complying with the requirements shown in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.015. 7 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015 Minimum requirements for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States Change to the table in paragraph 2(f) (column 3, row (b)) and new paragraph 3 2 (f) comply with the experience requirements set out in column (2) of the following table in relation to the validation conditions specified in column (3): Licence held Total flying hours experience Validation conditions (1) (2) (3) ATPL(A) >1500 hours as PIC on multi-pilot aeroplanes ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR* >1500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements >1000 hours as PIC in commercial air transport since gaining an IR >1000 hours as PIC or as co-pilot in single-pilot aeroplanes according to operational requirements >700 hours in aeroplanes other than TMGs, including 200 hours in the activity role for which validation is sought, and50 hours in that role in the last 12 months CPL(A)/IR CPL(A)/IR CPL(A) Commercial air transport in multi-pilot aeroplanes as PIC Commercial air transport in multi-pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot according to JAR-OPS Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as PIC Commercial air transport in single-pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot according to JAR–OPS Activities in aeroplanes other than commercial air transport (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Private pilot licences with Instrument Rating 3 A private pilot licence with instrument rating issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA State may be validated subject to conditions by a JAA Member State in order to permit flights (other than flight instruction) in aeroplanes registered in that JAA Member State. To validate such licences, the holder shall: (a) complete, as a skill test, the type/class and instrument rating of Appendix 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.210 and Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240; (b) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority in accordance with Subpart J, that a knowledge of Air Law and the Aeronautical Weather codes, subject number 050 10 03 01, as well as the Flight Planning & Performance (IR), subject number 030 00 00 00, in accordance with AMC FCL 1.470(c) has been acquired; (c) demonstrate a knowledge of English in accordance with JAR–FCL 1.200; (d) hold a valid JAR–FCL Class 2 medical certificate; (e) comply with the experience requirements set out in column (2) of the following table: PPL/IR Licence held Total flying hours experience (1) (2) > 100 hrs PIC instrument flight time 8 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.015 Conversion of a PPL issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL PPL (See JAR-FCL 1.015(c)(2)) New Appendix The minimum requirements for the conversion of a private pilot licence issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL licence are: (a) the applicant shall hold a licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 (b) the applicant shall hold at least a JAR-FCL Class 2 medical certificate (c) the applicant shall comply with the requirements set out in the table below. National licence held Experience requirement Any further JAR-FCL requirements Current and valid national ICAO PPL 100 hours as pilot of aeroplanes (a) Pass a written examination in Air Law and Human Performance and Limitations (b) Pass the PPL skill test as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.130 and 1.135 and Appendix 2 to JARFCL 1.135 9 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.016 Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a nonJAA State Adjustment to this paragraph, split into (a) and (b) (a) An applicant for a JAR–FCL licence and IR, if applicable, already holding at least an equivalent licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA State shall meet all the requirements of JAR–FCL, except that the requirements of course duration, number of lessons and specific training hours may be reduced. The Authority may be guided as to the credits to be granted on the basis of a recommendation from an appropriate training organisation. (b) The holder of an ATPL(A) who meets the experience requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015 may be credited with the requirements to undergo approved training prior to undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and the skill test, if that licence contains a valid multi-pilot type rating for the aeroplane to be used for the ATPL(A) skill test. 10 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.026 Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 Amendment to paragraph (a) and (c), deletion of paragraph (b) (a) A pilot shall not operate an aeroplane carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or a flight simulator of the aeroplane type/class to be used, in the preceding 90 days; and (b) A co-pilot shall not serve at the flight controls in an aeroplane carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless he has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type/class or a flight simulator of the aeroplane type/class to be used, in the preceding 90 days. (b) (c) The holder of a licence that which licence does not include a valid instrument rating (aeroplane) shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required by JAR-FCL 1.026(a) above has been carried out by night. 11 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.030 Arrangements for testing Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) Notification of examiners to organisations and registered facilities. flying training (1) The Authority will maintain a list of all examiners it has authorised stating for which roles they are authorised. The list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within the JAA Member State. The Authority will determine by which means the examiners will be allocated to the skill test. notify each approved flying training organisation or registered facility of the examiners which it has designated for the conduct of skill tests for the issue of private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings at that flying training organisation or registered facility. The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A). (2) The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A). 12 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.050 Crediting of theoretical knowledge – Bridge instruction and examination syllabus Introduction of new paragraphs 1 and 2. 1. Holder of a helicopter licence for the issue of a PPL(A) : From AMC-FCL 1.125 Syllabus of theoretical knowledge for the Private Pilot Licence(Aeroplane) all topics under the following subject heading : Air Law; Aircraft General Knowledge; Flight Performance and Planning; Operational Procedures and Principles of Flight. Applicants shall pass a theoretical bridge examination in Air Law and ATC procedures a determined by the Authority and PPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations 2. The holder of an ATPL(H) not restricted to VFR for the issue of a CPL(A) or an ATPL(A) and the holder restricted to VFR or of a CPL(H) for the issue of a CPL(A) : 13 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.055 Training organisations and registered facilities Amendments to paragraph (a)(2) (a) (1) ... (2) Reserved. FTOs wishing to offer training for licences and associated ratings whose principal place of business and registered office is located outside the JAA Member States, will be granted approval by a JAA full Member Authority in respect of any such location if: (a) an arrangement has been agreed between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, providing for the participation of that Authority in the approval process and provide regulatory oversight of the FTO; or (b) i) if adequate jurisdiction and supervision by the approving Authority can be assured; ii) the relevant additional requirements of Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055 are satisfied. 14 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 Flying Training Organisations for pilot licences and ratings Amendment to paragraphs 11, 15 and 28 11 The FTO shall satisfy the Authority that an adequate number of qualified, competent staff are employed. For integrated courses, three persons on the staff shall be employed full time in the following positions: Head of Training (HT) Chief Flying Instructor (CFI) Chief Ground Instructor (CGI) For modular training courses, these positions may be combined and filled by one or two persons, full time or part time, depending upon the scope of training offered. At least one person on the staff must be full time. In FTOs, employing 5 or less instructors, the positions of HT and CFI or CFI and CGI may be combined. 15 (d) have completed 1,000 hours pilot-in-command flight time and, in addition, of which a minimum of 1,000 500 hours shall be on flying instructional duties related to the flying courses conducted of which 200 hours may be instrument ground time. 28 The following accommodation shall normally be available: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ... ... ... ... ... 15 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1b to JAR–FCL 1.055 Partial Training outside JAA Member States Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) The skill test for the instrument rating is to be taken in the JAA Member State of the Authority that approves the training. A FTO providing approved training for the instrument rating outside JAA Member States will need to make arrangements for the approved course to include acclimatisation flying in the JAA Member State of the approving Authority or any JAA Member State at the discretion of the Authority prior to any student taking the instrument rating skill test. 16 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1c to JAR–FCL 1.055 Additional Requirements for training in FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States (See JAR-FCL 1.055(a)(2) (See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.300) New Appendix APPROVAL PROCESS 1 FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States wishing to train for JAR-FCL licences and associated ratings shall apply for approval of such courses to a National Authority of any full JAA Member State. Approval will be subject to: (a) The FTO shall meet the requirements of Appendix 1(a) to JAR-FCL 1.055 and any additional requirements of this Appendix; and (b) The Authority to which application has been made considers it possible to discharge its regulatory responsibilities for the approval process and an adequate level of supervision as required by the agreed JAA procedures. The cost and process of approval and supervision shall not put undue burden on the resources of the Authority; and (c) The approving JAA Authority can ensure adequate jurisdiction over the FTO during the approval process and the conduct of subsequent training courses. The national authority of the non-JAA State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office may assist the Authority of a JAA Member State in the approval process and provide oversight of training courses subject to an arrangement being agreed between the JAA and that non-JAA State; and (d) The Authority conducting the inspection of FTO facilities and procedures for the initial issue of an approval shall include in its inspection team flight examiners or training inspectors from at least one other JAA National Authority, in addition to those of the approving Authority, as determined by the JAR-FCL Committee. JURISDICTION 2 In the context of approval of FTOs located outside JAA Member States, the term ‘adequate jurisdiction’ shall mean that the Authority of the approving State shall be able to: (a) conduct initial and routine inspections of the FTO located in that non-JAA State to ensure compliance with the requirements of JAR-FCL; and (b) conduct flight tests and other standardisation checks as deemed necessary by the approving Authority; and (c) discharge its legal responsibilities for the grant, variation, suspension or revocation of approvals in accordance with the applicable law of the approving JAA Member State. The approving Authority may, subject to an arrangement between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, delegate responsibility for the provisions of paragraph 2(a) above to that non-JAA Authority. 17 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) FTOs TRAINING FOR PROFESSIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS 3 Provided that the requirements set out in this Appendix are met, approval may be granted if the approving Authority considers adequate supervision in accordance with JAA procedures to be possible. 4 Instruction may only be given under the direct control of the CFI(A) or nominated deputy holding a JAR-FCL licence or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to at least a JAR-FCL CPL/IR(A), who must be present while flight training is being undertaken. 5 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences who meet the requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.300 to instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and FI(A) shall not exceed 4:1. 6 The skill test for the Instrument Rating shall be conducted in the JAA Member State of the approving Authority. FTOs shall make arrangements for the approved course to include acclimatisation flying within the JAA Member State prior to any student taking the instrument rating skill test with an examiner authorised by the approving State. 7 The navigation progress test in Phase 3 of the ATP integrated course may be conducted by a locally-based flight instructor approved by the JAA approving Authority and not connected with the applicant’s training, provided that the instructor holds a JAR-FCL licence containing FI(A) or CRI(A) privileges, as appropriate. On completion of the required training, the skill test for the CPL(A) in Phase 4 of the ATP integrated course may be taken with a locally-based FE(A) nominated by the JAA approving Authority, provided that the examiner is authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL Subpart I and completely independent from the FTO except with the expressed consent in writing of the Authority. FTOs TRAINING FOR THE PPL(A) AND ASSOCIATED RATINGS ONLY 8 Provided that the requirements of this Appendix are met, approval to conduct courses for the JAR-FCL PPL(A) and associated ratings may be granted. 9 The management posts of Head of Training, Chief Flying Instructor and Chief Ground Instructor required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 may be combined, provided that the post holder holds at least a JAR-FCL CPL(A) or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to a JAR-FCL CPL(A). 10 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences with FI(A) rating to those holding JAA licences shall not exceed 8:1. Flight instructors holding non-JAA licences shall be acceptable to the approving Authority and shall: (a) hold at least a CPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 required by the respective non-JAA State for the instruction to be given on aircraft registered in that State; (b) hold a flight instructor rating valid in that State; (c) have at least 200 hours of flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as a flight instructor; (d) have demonstrated knowledge of the relevant JAA requirements. 11 Training aeroplanes, airfields and navigation training routes used for PPL training shall be acceptable to the approving Authority. 18 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 12 On completion of the required training the PPL(A) skill test may be taken by a locallybased flight examiner authorised by the approving Authority provided that the examiner has taken no part in the student’s flight instruction other than to conduct progress or safety checks during the course. 13 The Training and Operations Manuals required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 may, for FTOs conducting training for the PPL(A) and associated ratings only, be combined and contain only those references relevant to training for the PPL(A). FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS HOLDING JAR-FCL LICENCES 14 Flight Instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and ratings required to meet the provisions of paragraphs 5 and 10 above shall hold licences issued by a JAA Member State on the basis of meeting the requirements of JAR-FCL and not on the basis of a conversion of a non-JAA licence. Holders of licences converted on the basis of a non-JAA licence may be acceptable for this purpose if the FI(A) can demonstrate previous experience acceptable to the approving Authority of flight instruction for JAR-FCL licences. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 15 Training for theoretical knowledge may be given at an FTO conducting approved training outside the JAA Member States. The theoretical knowledge examinations for licence or rating issue shall be conducted by the approving Authority (see JAR-FCL 1.485). 19 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.065 State of licence issue Amendment to paragraph (a) (a) An applicant shall demonstrate the satisfactory completion of all requirements for licence issue to the Authority of the State under whose authority the medical examination and assessment and the training and testing for the licence were carried out. Following licence issue, this State shall thereafter be referred to as the ‘State of licence issue’ (see JAR–FCL 1.010(c)). 20 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.075 Specifications for flight crew licences Adjustment to the cover page and page 3 STANDARD JAA LICENCE FORMAT Cover page Authority name and logo (English and national language) Requirements JOINT AVIATION AUTHORITIES (English only) Size of each page shall be not less than one eighth A4 FLIGHT CREW LICENCE (English and national language) Issued in accordance with ICAO and JAR-FCL standards (English and national language) 21 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Page 3 II Titles of licences, date of initial issue and country code Abbreviations used will be as used in JAR–FCL (e.g. PPL(H), ATPL(A), etc.) Standard date format is to be used, i.e. day / month / year in full (e.g., 21/01/1995) IX Validity: This licence is to be re-issued not later than ................... The privileges of the licence shall be exercised only if the holder has a valid medical certificate for the required privilege. By the application of JAR–FCL 1.015(a)(1), the licence holder may is entitled to exercise licence privileges on aircraft registered in any Member State of the Joint Aviation Authorities subject to acceptance by that Member State. A document containing a photo shall be carried for the purposes of identification of the licence holder. Re-issue is to be not later than 5 years from the date of initial issue shown in item II. XII Radiotelephony privileges: The holder of this licence has demonstrated competence to operate R/T equipment on board aircraft in English (other languages specified). XIII [Remarks: e.g. valid only on aeroplanes registered in the State of licence issue. This document is not specified, but a passport would suffice when outside the State of licence issue. All additional licensing information required by ICAO, EC Directive / Regulations or JARs to be entered here 22 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 1.125 Contents of an application form for registration of a facility for PPL instruction Adjustment to this appendix, rows (f) and (g) of the table a Name and address under which the facility operates, i.e. Club, School, Group; b Name of Owner(s); c Date of intended commencement of operations; d Name, address and telephone number of FI’s and qualifications; e (i) Name and address of aerodrome, if applicable, from which training operations are to be conducted; (ii) Name of aerodrome operator; f List of aeroplanes to be used, including any means of synthetic flight instruction (if applicable) to be used by the facility, stating: Class/Type of aeroplanes, Registration(s), Registered Owner(s), C of A Categories; g Type of training to be conducted by the facility: Theoretical instruction for PPL(A) Flight instruction for PPL(A) Night qualification Single-engine piston and TMG SPA Class ratings others (specify) (JAR–FCL 1.017) h Details of aircraft insurance held; i State whether your facility intends to operate full or part time; j Any additional information the Authority may require; k A declaration below by the applicant that the information provided in (a) to (j) above is correct and that training will be conducted in accordance with JAR–FCL. Date: Signature: 23 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.150 Privileges and conditions Amendment to paragraph (b) (b) Conditions. An applicant for a CPL(A) who has complied with the conditions specified in JAR–FCL 1.140, 1.145 and 1.155 through 1.170 shall have fulfilled the requirements for the issue of at least a CPL(A) containing the class/type rating for the aeroplane used on the skill test and, if an instrument rating course and test in accordance with JAR-FCL 1 Subpart E are included, the instrument rating. 24 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.155 Experience and crediting Amendments to paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) (a) Integrated courses (2) Crediting. From the 150 hours of flight time: (i) 20 hours may have been completed in helicopters and/or in touring motor gliders; and (ii) 10 hours may be instrument ground time. (2) Crediting. For details on crediting of flight time required in (a)(1), see paragraph 4 in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.160 and 1.165(a)(1), paragraph 4 in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.160 and 1.165(a)(2) or paragraph 4 in Appendix 1 to JARFCL 1.160 and 1.165(a)(3) (b) Modular courses (2) Crediting. From the 200 hours of flight time: (i) 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and (i) (ii) 30 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(H) on helicopters; or (ii) (iii) 100 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(H) on helicopters; or (iii) (iv) 30 hours as pilot-in-command in touring motor gliders or gliders. 25 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(1) ATP(A) integrated course Amendment to paragraphs 4 and 7 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(A) entrant, 50% of the aeroplane hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the required flight instruction (JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(1) and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(1), paragraph 13) the course flight time requirement up to a credit of 40 hours flying experience or 45 hours if an aeroplane night flying qualification has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the Authority a FTO may designate certain dual exercises (see AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(1), phase 2 & 3) to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours. 7 The FTO shall ensure that before being admitted to the course the applicant has sufficient knowledge of Mathematics, and Physics and English to facilitate an understanding of the theoretical knowledge instruction content of the course. The required level of English shall be An applicant shall demonstrate the ability to use the English language in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.200. 26 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(2) CPL(A)/IR integrated course Amendment to paragraphs 4 and 7 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(A) entrant, 50% of the aeroplane hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the required flight instruction (JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(2) and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(2), paragraph 12) the course flight time requirement up to a credit of 40 hours flying experience or 45 hours if a night flying qualification has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the Authority a FTO may designate certain dual exercises (see AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(2), phase 2 & 3) to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours. 7 The FTO shall ensure that before being admitted to the course the applicant has sufficient knowledge of Mathematics, and Physics and English to facilitate an understanding of the theoretical knowledge instruction content of the course. The required level of English shall be An applicant shall demonstrate the ability to use the English language in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.200. 27 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(3) CPL(A) integrated course Amendment to paragraph 4 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(A) entrant, 50% of the aeroplane hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the required flight instruction (JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(3) and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.165(a)(3), paragraph 12) the course flight time requirement up to a credit of 40 hours flying experience or 45 hours if a night flying qualification has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the Authority a FTO may designate certain dual exercises (see AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(3), phase 2 & 3) to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours. 28 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(4) CPL(A) modular course Amendments to paragraphs 2, 10 and 11 2 (a) Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall: (a) be the holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1; (b) Before commencing the flight training an applicant shall: (i) have completed 150 hours flight time as a pilot; and (c) (ii) have complied with JAR–FCL 1.225 and 1.240 if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test. FLYING TRAINING 10 Applicants without an instrument rating shall be given at least 25 hours dual flight instruction (see AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(4)), including 10 hours of instrument instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I or II or a flight simulator (See AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(4)). Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) may be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an aeroplane. 11 (a) Applicants with a valid instrument rating shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction. (b) Applicants without a night flying qualification aeroplane shall be given additionally at least the 5 hours night flight instruction (see JAR-FCL 1.125(c)). 29 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.200 Use of English language Amendment of this paragraph, with the addition of (a) and (b) (a) An applicant for an IR(A) rating or validation shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.200. (b) The holder of an IR(A) shall have the PPL(A), CPL(A) or ATPL(A) extended with radiotelephony privileges in English. 30 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.200 IR(A) – Use of English language Adjustment of this appendix USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1 An applicant for or the holder of the IR(A) shall have the ability to use the English language for the following purposes: in the following circumstances: (a) flight: radio telephony relevant to all phases of flight, including emergency situations. This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has passed an IR or ATPL skill test or proficiency check during which the two-way radiotelephony communication is performed in English. (b) ground: all information relevant to the accomplishment of a flight, e.g. * be able to read and demonstrate an understanding of technical manuals written in English, e.g. an Operations Manual, an Aeroplane Flight Manual, etc. * pre-flight planning, weather information collection, NOTAMs, ATC Flight Plan, etc. * use of all aeronautical en-route, departure and approach charts and associated documents written in English. This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has graduated from an IR or ATP course given in English or if he has passed the theoretical IR or ATP examination in English. (c) communication: be able to conversate communicate with other crew members in English during all phases of flight, including flight preparation This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant for or the holder of an IR(A) has graduated from an MCC course given in English and is holding a certificate of satisfactory completion of that course in accordance with JAR-FCL 1.250(a)(3) or if he has passed a multi-pilot skill test/proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.240 & 1.295, during which the two-way radiotelephony communication and the communication with other crew members are performed in English. 2 This shall be demonstrated by complying with one of the following alternative requirements: [(a) having graduated from an IR or ATP course given in English, or (b) having passed a specific examination given by or on behalf of the Authority after having] undertaken a course of training enabling the applicant to meet all the objectives listed in 1(a), (b) and (c) above. 2 Alternatively, the above stated requirements may be demonstrated by having passed a specific examination given by or on behalf of the Authority after having undertaken a course of training enabling the applicant to meet all the objectives listed in 1(a), (b) and (c) above. 31 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.210 IR(A) - Skill test and proficiency check Amendment to paragraph 9 9. An applicant shall normally be required to fly the aeroplane .... 32 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.215 Class ratings (A) Amendment to paragraph (c) (c) The issue and the revalidation/renewal requirements of sea-plane class ratings or multi-engine centerline thrust aeroplane rating are at the discretion of the Authority. 33 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.215 List of Class of aeroplane See JAR–FCL 1.215 AMC FCL 1.215 becomes Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.215, and it is re-written as follows: Explanation of table (refer to JAR-FCL 1.235(c)): a. the symbol (D) in column 3 indicates that differences training is required when moving between variants or other types of aeroplane which are separated by the use of a line in column 2. b. although the licence endorsement (column 4) contains all aeroplanes listed in column 2, the required familiarisation or differences training has still to be completed; c. the specific variant on which the skill test for the class rating has been completed will be recorded according to JAR-FCL 1.080. d. the symbol (HPA) in column 3 indicates that additional knowledge instruction (to be developed) is required for this type of aeroplane if the applicant for the type rating is not the holder of an ATPL(A) or has no theoretical knowledge credit at ATPL(A) level. Aeroplanes not listed may be entered into a JAR-FCL licence, but the rating privileges are restricted to aeroplanes on the register of the State of rating issue. 1. Single/multi engine piston aeroplane (land/sea) - Single-pilot (SP) (A) 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 4 Licence Endorsement Single-engine piston (land) Single-engine piston (land) with Variable pitch propellers (VP) Single-engine piston (land) with Retractable undercarriage (RU) Single-engine piston (land) with Turbo/super charged engines (D) SE piston(land) (D) SE piston(sea) (T) All manufacturers Single-engine piston (land) with Cabin pressurisation (P) Single-engine piston (land) with Tail Wheel (TW) Single-engine piston (sea) Single-engine piston (sea) with Variable pitch propellers (VP) Single-engine piston (sea) with Turbo/super charged engines (T) 34 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 Single-engine piston (sea) with All manufacturers 2. 4 Licence Endorsement (D) SE piston(sea) All Multi-engine piston (land) (D) ME piston(land) All Multi-engine piston (sea) (D) ME piston(sea) Cabin pressurisation (P) Single-engine turboprop (land) - Single-pilot 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes Aerospatiale (Socata) TBM 700 Snow/Rockwell/Ayres S2R turbo thrush 3 (HPA) S2R/PT6 AerospatialeSET Snow/AyresSET S2R/T34 Trush Comm. Rockwell Ayres 4 Licence endorsement S-2R 206 A/T Soloy 207 A/T Soloy Cessna (D) CessnaSET 208 De Havilland DHC-3 Turbo-Otter DHC3 (AirTech Canada) DHC-2 Turbo-Beaver DHC2 Gulfstream Am.G-164D GulfstreamSET PC-6 series PC6 B2H2 Pilatus (D) Pilatus SET PC-7 Rhein Flugzeugbau FT 600 Rhein FlugzeugbauSET 3. Single-engine piston touring motor gliders (land) - Single-pilot 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes All All manufacturers Touring Motor 3 4 Licence endorsement Gliders having an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and a TMG non-retractable propeller 35 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.220 List of Type of aeroplane See JAR-FCL 1.220(c) AMC FCL 1.220 becomes Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.220 and is re-written as follows: This Appendix includes aeroplanes type certificated in JAA Member States and does not include: (i) aeroplanes not type certificated in accordance with FAR/JAR 23, FAR/JAR 23 Commuter Category, FAR/JAR 25, BCAR or AIR 2051; (ii) aeroplanes type certificated in a JAA Member State under special registration such as military, ex-military, experimental or vintage aeroplanes; Aeroplanes not listed may be entered into a JAR-FCL licence, but the rating privileges are restricted to aeroplanes on the register of the State of rating issue. Explanation of table (refer to JAR-FCL 1.235 (c): a. the symbol (D) in column 3 indicates that differences training is required when moving between variants or other types of aeroplane which are separated by the use of a line in column 2; b. although the licence endorsement (column 4) contains all aeroplanes listed in column 2, the required familiarisation or differences training has still to be completed; c. the specific variant on which the skill test for the type rating has been completed will be recorded according to JAR-FCL 1.080. d. the symbol (HPA) in column 3 indicates that additional knowledge instruction (to be developed) is required for this type of aeroplane if the applicant for the type rating is not the holder of an ATPL(A) or has no theoretical knowledge credit at ATPL(A) level. e. SP* means Single Pilot certificated in some JAA Member States. 36 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 A. JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES 1. Multi-engine turboprop aeroplane (land) : single-pilot (SP) (A) 1 Manufacturer Asta GAF 2 Aeroplanes 3 Nomad-22B 4 Licence endorsement AstaMET -24A 90 series Beech 99 series (HPA) 100 series (D) BE90/99/100/200 200 series 300 series (HPA) 900 series (D) F406 Cessna/Reims Aviation 425 441 De Havilland – Canada BE300/1900 (HPA) C406/425 (HPA) C441 DHC6 series DHC6 DO 128-6 D128 DO 228 series D228 Embraer Bandeirante EMB 110 EMB110 Grumman Tracker S2FT S2FT Mitsubishi MU 2B series Dornier (HPA) P166 Piaggio MU2B Piaggio166 P180 (HPA) Piaggio180 BN2T Turbine Islander Pilatus Britten BN2T - 4R MSSA (D) BN2T BN2T - 4S Defender Piper PA31 series Cheyenne I/II (HPA) PA42 series Cheyenne III (D) PA31/42 AC 680T Rockwell AC 690 series (HPA) RockwellMET AC 900 series Short SC7 Skyvan Swearingen/Fairchild SA 226 AT SA 226 TC SA 227 series SA 26 AT SA 226 T SA 226 T(B) 2. SC7Skyvan (HPA) (HPA) SA226AT/TC/227 SA26AT/226T Single engine - single-pilot 37 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 4 Licence endorsement PC-7 MkII PC-9 Pilatus PC9/PC7MkII PC-12 series (HPA) PC12 PA-46 Malibu (HPA) PC-9 (M) Piper PA-46 Malibu Turbine Walter Extra 3. (HPA) Extra 400 Canadair 2 Aeroplanes 3 CL215T Extra400 4 Licence endorsement CL215T Multi-engine turbo-jet (land) - single-pilot (SP) 1 Manufacturer Aerospatiale Cessna (HPA) PA46 Multi-engine turbo-prop (sea) - single-pilot 1 Manufacturer 4. (D) 2 Aeroplanes 3 MS 760 Paris (HPA) C501/500SP* (HPA) C551/550SP* (D) C525 (HPA) 38 4 Licence endorsement S760 C501/551 C525 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 B. JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 SN601 Corvette 4 Licence endorsement SN601 SE 210 III IIIR VIN Aerospatiale/Sud Aviation (D) SE 10B3 SE210/10B3/11/12 SE 11 SE 12 Aerospatiale/BAC Aerospatiale/Nord Aviation Concorde Concorde Nordatlas 2501 ND25 C160 P Transall ND16 260A Nord 262 A-B-C Nord Aero Spaceline 377 SGTF Super Guppy ND26 SuperGuppy A300-B1 -B2 series -B4 series A300 -C4-200 series -F4-200 series A300-FFCC A300FFCC A310 -200 series -300 series A300-B4 600 series A310/300-600 -C4 600 series Airbus -F4 600 series A319-100 series A320-100 series -200 series A319/320/321 A321-100 series -200 series A330-300 series -200 series A340-200 series -300 series A300-600ST/Beluga 39 A330 A340 A300-600ST 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 4 Licence endorsement ATR 42 200/300/400 ATR ATR 42 500 (D) ATR42/72 72 series Mitsubishi/Beech/Raytheon Beechjet 400 series Beech400/MU300 MU 300 B707-100 series -300 series B720 (D) B717 series B707/720 B717 B727-100 series B727 -200 series B737-100 series B737 100-200 -200 series B737-300 series -400 series -500 series -600 series Boeing (D) B737 300-800 (D) B747 100-300 -700 series -800 series B747-100 series -200 series -300 series -SP B747-400 series B747 400 B757-200 series -300 series B767-200 series (D) B757/767 (D) B777 -300 series B777-200 series B777-300 series ATP Jetstream 61 BAe/ATP/Jetstream 61 AVRO RJ series British Aerospace / AVRO 146-100 series -200 series AVRORJ/BAe146 -300 series 40 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 1 Manufacturer 2 Aeroplanes 3 BAC1-11 BAC 1-11-200 series British Aerospace / AVRO 4 Licence endorsement -400 series -500 series HS125 series Hawker Siddeley/Bae/Raytheon Bae 125-800series (D) -1000 series HS 748 series Hawker Siddeley/Bae BAe / Avro HS125 HS748 Jetstream 3100 series Jetstream31/32 3200 series Jetstream 41 Jetstream41 CL 415 CL415 CL 600 CL 601-1A Canadair CL600/601 CL 601-3A CL 600-B19 CLRJ 100 CL 600-2B16 CL604 C-212 series Casa C212/CN235 CN-235 C 500 C 550 (D) CS 550 Cessna C500/550/560 C 560 C650 Citation III C650 Citation VII C750 Citation X C750 CV 240-4 Consolidated Vultee Aircraft (D) CV 340 CV 440 CV 580 CV580 Falcon 10 Falcon 100 Dassault Falcon 20 series Falcon 200 1 Manufacturer CV240/340/440 2 Aeroplanes 41 (D) Falcon10/100 (D) Falcon20/200 3 4 Licence endorsement 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Falcon 50 Falcon 900 Dassault (D) Falcon50/900 Falcon 900 EX De Havilland – Canada Dornier McDonnel-Douglas Falcon 2000 Falcon2000 DHC7 DHC7 DHC8-100 series DHC8 -300 series DHC8-400 series DHC8 400 DO 328-100 DO328-100 DO 328-300 DO328-300 Douglas A-26B DCA26 Douglas -3A-S1C3G DC3 DC4 DC4 DC6 series DC6 DC7C DC7 DC8-33 DC8 -50, 60,70 series DC9 10-50 series McDonnel-Douglas/Boeing DC9 10-50 DC9 80 series MD 88 series (D) DC9 80/MD88/MD90 MD 90 series Embraer DC10 series DC10 MD 11 MD11 EMB 120 Brasilia EMB120 EMB 135 Regional Jet EMB135 EMB 145 Regional Jet EMB145 FH227 F27A/F/J F27 F27 series Fokker/Fairchild F28 series F28 F50 F50 F70 F70/100 F100 1 Manufacturer Grumman Gulfstream 2 Aeroplanes 3 Grumman G-159 Grumman G-1159 42 4 Licence endorsement GulfstreamI (D) GulfstreamII/III 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Grumman G-1159A Handley Page Gulfstream 1159C GulfstreamIV Gulfstream V GulfstreamV Herald series Herald IAI -1121 Jetcommander Israel Aircraft Industry Junkers -1123 Commodore Jet -1124 Westwind IAI -1125 Astra IAI1125 Junkers 52 JU52 L188 Electra series A L188 Electra series C Lockheed (D) L188Electra L382 G (C 130) Hercules L1011 series L1011 L1329 Jetstar Learjet-20 series -30 series Learjet IAI1121/23/24 (D) Learjet20/30 Learjet-45 series Learjet45 Learjet-55 series Learjet55 Learjet-60 series Learjet60 L410 UVP LetL410 HFB 320 HFB320 VFW 614 VFW-614 PT Industry IPTN CN 235-110 IPTNCN235 Rockwell International NA-265 series NA265 SAAB SF340 series SAAB340 SAAB 2000 SAAB2000 Leteckee MBB Saab SD3 -30 Short Brothers Vickers-Armstrong (D) -60 SD3-30/60 SC5 Belfast Belfast Vanguard Vanguard Viscount Viscount 43 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.220(a) Type Rating assessment and approval of the course for multi-pilot aeroplane See JAR-FCL 1.220, 1.235, 1.240 and 1.261(c)(2) See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.220 New AMC 1. Introduction 1.1 The following should be considered when a new aeroplane or variant is introduced, next to the aeroplane type certification exercise: (a) assessment of a type rating based on manufacturer proposal (see JAR-FCL 1.220); (b) approval of the proposed type rating course (see JAR-FCL-1.240,1.261,1.295); 1.2 Definitions (a) Base Aeroplane: An aeroplane, or a group of aeroplanes used as a reference by a manufacturer or an applicant to compare differences with other aeroplane types/variants. 2. Type Rating Establishment (see JAR-FCL 1.220) 2.1 The methodology for assessment of type rating is initiated when a manufacturer presents an aeroplane for type certification as a new type, or variant of an existing type. In any event, type rating and crew qualification requirements should be set at the time of type Certification and prior to the aeroplane entering into service. (a) To begin the evaluation, the manufacturer or the applicant should first nominate one aeroplane as the base aeroplane from which to show differences with the second aeroplane, i.e. the difference aeroplane. Since combinations of all aeroplane model configuration may be numerous, similar models are assigned to logical groups to be described in Master Difference Requirement (MDR) Tables. Only typical differences are then evaluated. (b) One key issue with regard to consideration of a single license endorsement for 2 aeroplanes is related to the Certificated minimum flight crew complement. If the minimum flight crew complement specified in the Aeroplane Flight Manual is not the same for the two aeroplanes considered, then the same type rating cannot be achieved. (c) A comparison must then be performed between the base aeroplane and the difference aeroplane in terms of technology (systems), procedures, pilot handling and aeroplane management. These differences are compiled in an ODR table (Operational Differences Requirements), which constitute part of the justification for the assessment of the type rating, and are used by TRTOs and/or Operators for definition of type rating course content (see Appendix 1 to AMC FCL 1.220 for details). (d) Based on the above analysis (including preliminary flight test results and/or flight simulation estimates, if available), the Manufacturer will propose "difference levels" to be specified in each cell of the Master Difference requirements table for the various model pairs. The Manufacturer will propose a plan for validation of the similarities and difference levels, including validation of the manufacturer's proposed training programme. (e) The final stage of the process for type rating assessment is related to the comparison of handling characteristics between the base aeroplane and the difference aeroplane. (f) Following completion of the evaluation, the results and findings from the process with regards to type rating assessment shall be presented in a report which will serve as reference 44 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) material for all JAA Member States, having oversight of Operators receiving the new aeroplane type or variant. 3. Type Rating Course Approval (see JAR-FCL 1.261(c)(2)) 3.1 For type rating course approval, guidelines from AMC 1.261(c)(2) should be followed. The purpose of the following is to provide additional guidelines regarding type rating course approval when the applicant is seeking credit between 2 aeroplanes. 3.2 Methodology to be used is described in the Appendix 1 to AMC FCL 1.220, paragraph 2: Use of ODR tables. This method allows to define type rating course content by difference from the base aeroplane to the difference aeroplane taking credit of the similarities between the aeroplanes. The ODR tables will identify the items for which training is required. 3.3 The level of differences between the two aeroplanes will determine the amount of theoretical and practical training, and the required training media (OTD, FTD, and FS). 4. Concepts/Definitions The concept of MASTER REQUIREMENT for pilot or flight engineer (F/E) qualification is introduced with this approach. Master requirements are formalised at the end of the evaluation process in the Aeroplane Evaluation Report. Master requirements are expressed either in the form of Master Common Requirements (MCRs) or Master Difference Requirements (MDRs) as defined in the following paragraphs. The MDRs are stated in terms of minimum acceptable difference levels. 4.1 Master Common Requirements (MCRs) Master common requirements are requirements applicable to pilot or F/E qualification which pertain to all variants of the same type, or family of aeroplanes. When variants exist within a family of aeroplane, MCRs specify only those items which are common to all aeroplanes. MCRs are usually based on the aeroplane manufacturer proposal, and are formulated in the aeroplane evaluation report following tests and evaluation process. MCRs are originally specified when an aeroplane is first type certificated and are revised as necessary when variants are developed. 4.2 Master Difference Requirements (MDRs) Master difference requirements are those requirements applicable to pilot or F/E qualification which pertain to differences between variants of an aeroplane or within a family of aeroplanes. MDRs specify the minimum acceptable difference levels between aeroplanes and are usually presented in a tabular format. The MDR table identifies the familiarisation or difference training required, and any specific requirement will be expressed under footnotes. MDRs are usually based on the aeroplane manufacturer proposal at time of certification of an aeroplane variant. They are formulated in the aeroplane evaluation report following test and evaluation process, and are revised as necessary when new variants are developed. 45 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to AMC FCL 1.220(a) Aeroplane comparison and ODR tables See AMC FCL 1.220(a) 1. Items to consider for aeroplane comparison When comparing differences and similarities between the aeroplane considered, the following areas should be considered: 1.1 General characteristics and level of technology (a) The general characteristics of the difference aeroplane should be compared with the base aeroplane with regards to: (i) General dimensions and aeroplane design, (ii) Flight deck general design (iii) Cabin layout, (iv) Engines (number, type and position) (v) Limitations (flight envelope) (b) Level of technology. The level of technology of each aeroplane under consideration encompasses at least the following design aspects: (i) Flight deck layout (e.g. design philosophy chosen by a manufacturer); (ii) Mechanical versus electronic instrumentation (iii) Presence or absence of Flight Management System (FMS), (iv) conventional flight controls (hydraulic, electric or manual controls) versus fly by wire, (v) side stick versus conventional yoke, (vi) pitch trim systems, (vii) engine type and technology level (e.g. jet/turboprop/piston, with or without automatic protection systems. 1.2 Operational differences. (a) Consideration of operational procedures involves mainly the pilot machine interface, and the compatibility of the following: (i) Paper checklist versus automated display of checklists or messages (e.g. ECAM, EICAS) during all procedures, (ii) Manual versus automatic selection of navaids, (iii) Navigation equipment, (iv) Aeroplane weight and performance. (b) Operational differences encompass normal, abnormal and emergency situations and include any change in aeroplane handling and flight management. It is necessary to establish 46 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) a list of operational items for consideration on which an analysis of differences can be made. The operational analysis should take the following into account: (i) Flight deck dimensions,(e.g. size, cut off angle and pilot eye height); (ii) Differences in controls (e.g. design, shape, location, function); (iii) Additional or altered function (flight controls) in normal or abnormal conditions, (iv) Procedures, (v) Handling qualities (including inertia) in normal and in abnormal configurations, (vi) Performance in manoeuvres, (vii) Aeroplane status following failure, (viii) Management (e.g. ECAM, EICAS, navaid selection, automatic checklists) 1.3 Handling characteristics Consideration of handling characteristics include control response, crew perspective and handling techniques in all stages of operations. This encompasses flight and ground characteristics as well as performance influences (e.g. number of engines). The capabilities of the autopilot and autothrust systems may affect handling characteristics as well as operational procedures. 2 Use of Operational Differences Requirement (ODR) tables 2.1 General Use of the methodology described below is acceptable to the Authority as a means of evaluating the aeroplane differences and similarities for type rating assessment and definition of the type rating course content. 2.2 Compilation of ODR tables The ODR tables identify one aeroplane as the base aeroplane from which to show the differences to the second aeroplane named difference aeroplane in terms of technology (systems), procedures, pilot handling and aeroplane management. (a) Table 1 - ODR 1: General The general characteristics of the difference aeroplane should be compared with the base aeroplane) 47 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) BASE AEROPLANE : DIFFERENCE AEROPLANE GENERAL DIFFERENCES General description of aeroplane (dimensions weight, limitations...) Identification of the relevant differences between the base aeroplane and the difference aeroplane. COMPLIANCE METHOD FLT CHAR PROC CHNG Impact on flight Impact on characteristics procedures (performance (Yes or No) and/or handling) Trainin g Checking Recent Experience Assessment of the difference levels according to Table 4 (b) Table 2 - ODR 2: Systems Consideration should be given to differences in design between the difference aeroplane and the base aeroplane. This comparison should be completed using the ATA 100 index to establish system and subsystem classification and then an analysis performed for each index item with respect to main architectural, functional and/or operations elements, including controls and indications on the systems control panel. BASE AEROPLANE : DIFFERENCE AEROPLANE SYSTEMS Brief description of systems and subsystems classified according to the ATA 100 index. (c) DIFFERENCES List of differences for each relevant subsystem between the base aeroplane and the difference aeroplane. COMPLIANCE METHOD FLT CHAR PROC CHNG Impact on flight Impact on characteristics procedures (performance (Yes or No) and/or handling) Trainin g Checking Recent Experience Assessment of the difference levels according to Table 4 Table 3 - ODR 3: Manoeuvres Operational differences encompass normal, abnormal and emergency situations and include any change in aeroplane handling and flight management. It is necessary to establish a list of operational items for consideration on which an analysis of differences can be made. BASE AEROPLANE : DIFFERENCE AEROPLANE MANOEUVRES Described according to phase of flight (gate, taxi, flight, taxi, gate). DIFFERENCES List of relevant differences for each manoeuvre between the base aeroplane and the difference aeroplane. COMPLIANCE METHOD FLT CHAR PROC CHNG Impact on flight Impact on characteristics procedures (performance (Yes or No) and/or handling) 48 Trainin g Checking Recent Experience Assessment of the difference levels according to Table 4 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) (d) Once the differences for ODR 1, ODR 2 and ODR 3 have been established, the consequences of differences evaluated in terms of Flight Characteristics (FLT CHAR) and Change of Procedures (PROC CHNG) should be entered into the appropriate columns. (e) Difference levels - crew training, checking and currency The final stage of an ODR proposal is to establish crew training, checking and currency requirements. This may be established by applying the coded difference levels from Table 4 to the Compliance Method column of the ODR tables. 2.3 Table 4: Difference levels versus training Difference Level Method / Minimum Training Device A : Represents knowledge requirement. B : Aided instruction is required to ensure crew understanding, emphasise issues, aid retention of information, or: Aided instruction with partial application of procedures. C : For variants having part task differences affecting skills or abilities as well as knowledge. Training device required to ensure attainment and retention of crew skills D : Full task differences affecting knowledge, skills and/or abilities requiring devices capable of performing flight manoeuvres. E : Full tasks differences requiring high fidelity environment to attain and maintain knowledge skills and abilities. Self Instruction through operating bulletins or differences handouts Aided Instruction e.g. computer base training (CBT), classroom instruction or video tapes. Interactive CBT System device Interactive CBT Flight Training Device (JAR-STD 2(A) JAR-STD 1(A) FS level C Note : Level A and B require familiarisation training, level C and D require differences training. Level E require type rating training. For level E, the nature and extent of the differences are such that training in a full flight simulator or aeroplane is required, thus level E implies a different type rating. INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 49 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.240 Type and class ratings – Requirements Addition of new paragraph (6) (a) General (1) An applicant for a type rating for a multi-pilot type of aeroplane shall comply with the requirements for type ratings set out in JAR–FCL 1.250, 1.261 and 1.262; (2) An applicant for a type rating for a single-pilot type of aeroplane shall comply with the requirements set out in JAR–FCL 1.255, 1.261(a), (b) and (c) and 1.262(a); and (3) An applicant for a class rating for a class of aeroplanes shall comply with the requirements set out in JAR–FCL 1.260, 1.261(a), (b) and (c) and 1.262(a). (4) The type rating course, including theoretical kowledge, shall be completed within the 6 months preceding the skill test. (5) At the discretion of the Authority, an aeroplane class or type rating may be issued to an applicant who meets the requirements for that rating of a non-JAA State, provided JAR– FCL 1.250, 1.255 or 1.260 as applicable, are met. Such a rating will be restricted to aeroplanes registered in that non-JAA State, or operated by an operator of that non-JAA State. The restriction may be removed when the holder has completed at least 500 hours of flight as a pilot on the type/class and complied with the revalidation requirements of JAR–FCL 1.245. (6) A type rating contained in a licence issued by a non-JAA State may be transferred to a JAR-FCL licence, subject to the appropriate proficiency check, provided the applicant is in current flying practice and has not less than 500 hours flying experience on that type, provided JAR-FCL 1.250, 1.255 or 1.260 as applicable, are met. 50 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.240 & 1.295 Skill test and proficiency check for aeroplane type/class ratings and ATPL Adjustment of paragraph 3 – split into separate sub-paragraphs 3 (a) The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check. If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. Any applicant failing only one section shall take the failed section again. Failure in any section of the re-test/re-check including those sections that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. (b) In case the applicant fails only Section 6, the type rating will be issued without Cat II or III privileges. (c) Section 6 is not part of the ATPL skill test. 51 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.240 & 1.295 Contents of the ATPL/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on multi-pilot aeroplanes Some text amendments in this appendix 1 The following symbols mean: P = Trained as Pilot-in-command or Co-pilot and as Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Not Flying (PNF) for the issue of a type rating as applicable. X = Flight Simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available, otherwise an aircraft aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure except where indicated. 2 The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (→ → ). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A FS FTD OTD = = = = Aeroplane Flight Simulator Flight Training Device Other Training Devices 3 The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC. If the starred items (*) are not flown in actual or simulated IMC during the proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only. 4 Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test/ proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise. 5 A flight simulator shall be used for practical training if the simulator forms part of an approved type-rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (a) the qualification of the flight simulator as set out in JAR-STD; (b) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner; (c) the amount of line-orientated simulator training provided on the course; (d) the qualifications and previous line operating experience of the pilot under training; and (e) the amount of supervised line flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating. INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 52 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructor’s initials Chkd in Examiner’s initials when when training completed FS A test completed SECTION 1 1 1.1 Flight preparation P Performance calculation P 1.2 Aeroplane ext. visual inspect.; location of each item and purpose of inspection 1.3 Cockpit inspection P 1.4 Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies. P M P 1.5 T a xy i n g i n c o m p l i a n c e with air traffic control or instructions of instructor. 1.6 Before take-off checks P M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1 Normal take offs with different flap settings, including expedited take off. P 2.2 Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or immediately after becoming airborne. P* 2.3 Cross wind take-off (A, if practicable) P 2.4 Take-off at m axim um take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P 2.5 Take-offs engine failure 2.5.1* with simulated shortly after reaching V2, or P* 53 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD Instructor’s initials Chkd in Examiner’s initials when when training completed FS A test completed FS A between V 1 and V 2, or P* X M* FS Only 2.5.3 as close as possible after V 1, when V 1 and V 2 or V 1 and V R are identical. P* X M* FS Only 2.6 2.5.4 R e j e c t e d t a k e - o f f a t a reasonable speed before reaching V 1, giving due consideration to aeroplane characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction, brake heat energy, and any other factors that might adversely affect safety. P * In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the engine failure shall not be simulated until reaching a minimum height of 500ft above runway end. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure shortly after reaching V 2. 2.5.2 X M SECTION 3 and P 3.2 Tuck under and Mach buffets after reaching the critical Mach number, and other specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) P 3 Flight Procedures Manoeuvres 3.1 Turns with and without spoilers. 3.3 Normal operation of systems and controls engineer’s panel. X An aircraft may not be used for this exercise P 54 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS 3.4 Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: 3.4.0 E n g i n e propeller) (if necessary 3.4.1 Pressurisation conditioning and air- P 3.4.3 Fuel system P 3.4.4 Electrical system P 3.4.5 Hydraulic system P and 3.4.7 Anti- and de-icing Glare shield heating Trim- P system, P 3.4.8 Autopilot/Flight director P 3.4.9 Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices. P when training completed FS A test completed M A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal items shall be selected from 3.4 to 3.5 inclusive. P 3.4.10 Ground proximity warning system W eather radar, radio altimeter, transponder. 3.4.11 R a d i o s , navigation equipm ent, instrum ents, flight management system. P 3.4.12 Landing gear and brake- P 3.4.13 Slat and flap system. P 3.4.14 Auxiliary power unit. P 3.5 P TCAS Examiner’s initials when P Pitot/static system control Chkd in P 3.4.2 3.4.6 Flight system A Instructor’s initials 55 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 3.6 Abnormal procedures: and Smoke control and removal. 3.6.4 P Fuel dumping (simulated). off/ P pressure P Take 3.6.6 Simulated cabin failure/Emergency descent. flight P 3.6.8 O t h e r emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane Flight Manual. P 3.7 Steep turns with 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right. P 3.6.7 Incapacitation c r e w flight member. of 3.8 Early recognition and counter measures on approaching stall (up to activation of stall warning device) in take-off configuration (flaps in take-off position), in cruising flight configuration and in landing configuration (flaps in landing position, gear extended) 3.8.1 Recovery from full stall or after activation of stall warning device in climb, cruise and approach configuration Examiner’s initials when when training completed FS A test completed M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.6 to 3.6.8 inclusive P P at A Chkd in P 3.6.3 Engine failures, shut-down and restart at a safe height. 3.6.5 W indshear landing FS emergency 3.6.1 Fire drills e.g. Engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires including evacuation. 3.6.2 FTD Instructor’s initials X FS only P P 56 X 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructor’s initials Chkd in Examiner’s initials when when training completed FS A test completed 3.9 Instrument flight procedures. 3.9.1 Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions. P* 3.9.2 Holding procedures. P* M* 3.9.3 ILS-approaches down to a a decision height (DH) not less than 60 m (200 ft). 3.9.3.1 manually, director. without flight P* 3.9.3.2 manually, with flight director P* 3.9.3.3 automatically, with autopilot P* 3.9.3.4 manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during f i n a l a p p r o a c h f r o m b e f o r e passing the outer marker (OM) until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure. P* M* M* M* In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the NDB or VOR approach as described in 3.9.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height (OCH/A), however, not later than reaching a minimum descent height/altitude (MDH/A) of 500 ft above runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.9.3.4. 57 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructor’s initials Chkd in Examiner’s initials when when training completed FS A test completed 3.9.4 NDB or VOC/LOC-approach down to the MDH/A. P* M* 3.9.5 Circling approach following conditions: P* M* under (a) approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: (b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centreline from final approach used in item a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude; Remark: if a) and b) are not possible due to ATC reasons a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed SECTION 4 4 Missed Procedures Approach P* 4.1 Go-around with al engines operating* after an ILS approach on reaching decision height. l 4.2 Other procedures m issed approach P* 4.3 Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative* after an ILS approach on reaching DH (see also 3.9.3.4). P* 4.4 Rejected landing at 15 m (50 ft) above runway threshold and goaround. P 58 M* 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructor’s initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed SECTION 5 5 P Landings 5.1 Normal landings* also after an ILS approach with transition to visual flight on reaching DH. P 5.2 Landing with sim ulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position. 5.3 Cross wind landings (a/c, if practicable). P 5.4 Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats. P 5.5 Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative. 5.6 Landing with simulated inoperative: two engines 5.6 Landing with simulated inoperative: two engines X an aircraft may not be used for this exercise P P – Aeroplanes with three engines: th e centre engine and one outboard engine as far as practicable according to data of the AFM. M X M FS only – Aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side. General remarks: Proposed sequence for skill test 3.9.4 3.9.3 3.9.3.4 3.9.5 4.3 5.5/5.6 Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 feet (60 m), i.e. Cat II/III operations. (Refer to Subpart E, paragraph 1.180) 59 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructor’s initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed SECTION 6 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1 Aborted take-off mum authorised RVR. 6.2 at P* mini- X an aircraft may not be used for this exercise M* ILS Approaches In simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight guidance system. S t a n d a r d procedures of crew coordination (task sharing, call out procedures, mutual surveillance, information exchange and support) shall be observed. P* 60 M* 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 6.3 FS A Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed Go-around after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training also shall include a goaround due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aeroplane deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, and ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH and, go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure 6.4 FTD Instructor’s initials when training completed P* M* P* M* Landing(s) with visual reference established at DH following an instrum ent approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed NOTE: CAT II/III operations shall be accomplished in accordance with Operational Rules. INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 61 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 1.240 Contents of the class/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on single-engine and multi-engine single-pilot aeroplanes Additional paragraph 6 When a proficiency check on a single-pilot aeroplane is performed in a multi-pilot operation in accordance with JAR-OPS, the type/class rating will be restricted to multi-pilot. 76 A flight simulator or FNPT II shall be used for practical training for type or multi-engine class ratings if the simulator or FNPT II forms part of an approved type or class rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (a) the qualification of the flight simulator or FNPT II as set out in JAR–STD; (b) the qualifications of the instructors and examiner; (c) the amount of flight simulator or FNPT II training provided on the course; and (d) the qualifications and previous experience of the pilot under training. 62 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) IEM FCL 1.240(b)(1) & 1.261(c)(2) Contents of Type Rating training / skill test / proficiency check on multi-pilot aeroplane New IEM Requirements for the contents of the type rating training and the skill test for multi-pilot aeroplanes are set out in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.240, Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(a) and AMC FCL 1.261(a). Guidelines for approval of an aeroplane Type Rating Course are set out in AMC FCL 1.261(c). This IEM gives guidelines for the approval of credit(s) for the type rating training and the skill test on mulit-pilot aeroplanes, when the applicant is already qualified on a similar type or variant. 1 Content of the Type Rating course The methodology which applies for type rating assessment and/or the findings of the Type Rating Evaluation Board (TREB) may be used for the approval of the content of the type rating course. Credit may be given for manoeuvres/procedures common or similar to two types or variants and need not to be repeated. 2 Skill test / proficiency check The methodology which applies for type rating assessment or the findings of the Type Rating Evaluation Board (TREB) may be used for the approval of the content of the skill test. Credit may be given in the skill test for manoeuvres/procedures common or similar to two types or variants. 63 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR-FCL 1.245 Type and class ratings – Validity, revalidation and renewal Adjustment to paragraph (c)(1)(i) (c) (1) (i) within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 1 and 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240 or Appendix 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.210 with an authorised examiner on either a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) or a touring motor glider; or (ii) of the rating : within 12 months preceding the expiry (A) complete 12 hours of [flight time in the class including] 6 hours of pilot-in-command time and 12 take-offs and 12 landings; and (B) complete a training flight of at least 1 hours duration with a flight instructor. This flight may be replaced by any other proficiency check or skill test for a class or type rating. (ii) within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating complete 12 hours flight time in the class including: (A) 6 hours of pilot-in-command time; (B) 12 take-offs and 12 landings; and (C) a training flight of at least one hour’s duration with a FI(A) or CRI(A). This flight may be replaced by any other proficiency check or skill test for a class or type rating. 64 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.250 Type rating, multi-pilot – Conditions New paragraph (b), old paragraph (b) is now paragraph (d) (b) Applicants having: (1) either a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in accordance with JAR-FCL 2 and experience of more than 100 hours as a pilot of a multipilot helicopter, or (2) experience of more than 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopter shall be considered to meet the requirement of MCC. [] (d) (b) The issue of an Training for additional multipilot type rating requires a valid multi-engine instrument rating. 65 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.261 Type and class ratings – Knowledge and flight instruction Adjustment to paragraph (d)(2) (d) Multi-crew co-operation training (see also JAR– FCL 1.250(a)(3) (2) The MCC training shall be accomplished within six months under the supervision of either the Head of Training of an approved FTO or an approved TRTO or on an approved training course conducted by an operator. A course conducted by an operator shall meet the relevant requirements of Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.055, as determined by the Authority. For further details on MCC training see AMC FCL 1.261(d) and IEM FCL 1.261(d). A FNPT II or a flight simulator shall be used. Wherever possible, the MCC training should be combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot aeroplane, in which case the practical training may be reduced to not less than 10 hours if the same flight simulator is used for both the MCC and type rating training. Where MCC training is combined with training for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane, a FTD or a flight simulator may be used as part of the overall approval of the combined course. 66 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(a) Theoretical knowledge instruction requirements for skill test/proficiency checking for class/type ratings Amendments to paragraph 2 with addition of part of AMC FCL 1.261(a), and 3, 2 The theoretical knowledge instruction shall cover the syllabus in AMC FCL 1.261(a), as appropriate to the aeroplane class/type concerned with the following content: (a) Aeroplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions - (b) Limitations - (c) General limitations Engine limitations System limitations Minimum equipment list Performance, flight planning and monitoring (d) Performance Flight planning Flight monitoring Load, balance and servicing (e) Dimensions Engine including auxiliary power unit Fuel system Pressurisation and air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic systems Landing gear Flight controls, lift devices Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment Load and balance Servicing on ground Emergency procedures (f) Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) (g) Special requirements for “glass cockpit” aeroplanes - (h) Airborne equipment, procedures and limitations Electronic flight instrument systems (e.g. EFIS, EICAS) Flight management systems (FMS) 3. For the initial issue of type ratings for multi-pilot aeroplanes the written or computer based examination shall normally at least comprise one hundred multiple choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of the syllabus. The pass mark shall be 75% in each of the mark subjects of the syllabus. 67 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.261(a) Syllabus of theoretical knowledge instruction for class/type ratings for single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes See JAR–FCL 1.261(a) See Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.261(a) The first 8 paragraphs have been deleted from this AMC and have been added to Appendix 1 to JARFCL 1.261(a). The rest remains an AMC and is not indicated here. CONTENTS 1 Aeroplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 Dimensions Engine including auxiliary power unit Fuel system Pressurisation and air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic systems Landing gear Flight controls, lift devices Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment 2 Limitations 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 General limitations Engine limitations System limitations Minimum equipment list 3 Performance, flight planning and monitoring 3.1 3.2 3.3 Performance Flight planning Flight monitoring 4 Load, balance and servicing 4.1 4.2 Load and balance Servicing on ground 5 Emergency procedures 6 Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) 6.1 Airborne equipment, procedures and limitations 7 Special requirements for “glass cockpit” aeroplanes 7.1 Electronic flight instrument systems (e.g. EFIS, EICAS) 8 Flight management systems (FMS) 68 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.261(c)(2) Guidelines for Approval of an Aeroplane Type Rating Course Adjustment to paragraph 4 4 Skill Test The content of the flying training programme should be directed towards the skill test for that type. The practical training and skill test given in Appendix 2 and 3 to JAR–FCL 1.240 should be modified as necessary. The skill test may be completed in an aeroplane, in a flight simulator or partially in an aeroplane and in a flight simulator. The use of a STD for skill tests is governed by the level of approval of the flight simulator and the previous experience of the candidate. Where a flight simulator is not available, abnormal operations of systems should not be practised in an aircraft other than as allowed for in the skill test form for the type. 69 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (Aeroplane) (See JAR-FCL 1.261(d)) (See AMC FCL 1.261(d)) New Appendix, coming from AMC FCL 1.261(d) 1 The aim of the course is to become proficient in multi-crew co-operation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes under IFR and, for that purpose, to ensure that: a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training shall be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 3 The theoretical knowledge syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.261(d). An approved MCC theoretical knowledge course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. FLYING TRAINING 4 The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.261(d). CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION 5 On completion of the course, the applicant may be issued with a certificate of satisfactory completion of the course. CROSS-CREDITING 6 A holder of a certificate of completion of MCC training on aeroplanes shall be exempted from the requirement to complete the theoretical knowledge syllabus as set out in AMC FCL 1.261(d). 70 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) See JAR–FCL 1.261(d) See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d) Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d). IEM FCL 1.261(d) has been included in this AMC. Appendix 1 to AMC FCL 1.261(d) remains unchanged and is therefore not reproduced here. 1 The aim of the course is to become proficient in multi-crew co-operation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes under IFR. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training should be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION TRAINING The objectives of MCC training are optimum decision making, communication, division of 13 tasks, use of checklists, mutual supervision, teamwork, and support throughout all phases of flight under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions. The training emphasises the development of nontechnical skills applicable to working in a multi-crew environment. The training should focus on teaching students the basics on the functioning of crew members 24 as teams in a multi-crew environment, not simply as a collection of technically competent individuals. Furthermore, the course should provide students with opportunities to practice the skills that are necessary to be effective team leaders and members. This requires training exercises which include students as crew members in the PF and PNF roles. Students should be made familiar with inter-personal interfaces and how to make best use of 35 crew co-operation techniques and their personal and leadership styles in a way that fosters crew effectiveness. Students should be made aware that their behaviour during normal circumstances can have a powerful impact on crew functioning during high workload and stressful situations. Research studies strongly suggest that behavioural changes in any environment cannot be 46 accomplished in a short period even if the training is very well designed. Trainees need time, awareness, practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement to learn lessons that will endure. In order to be effective, multi-crew co-operation training should be accomplished in several phases spread over a period. 7 In principle, the purpose of crew co-ordination procedures is to achieve the following aims. a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. BASIC MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION COURSE 58 The contents of the basic MCC course should cover theoretical knowledge training, practice and feedback in: 71 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 a. interfaces – b. listening conflict resolution mediating critique (pre-flight analyses and planning, ongoing-review, postflight) team building effective and clear communication during flight – – – – – e. managerial and supervisory skills assertiveness barriers cultural influence PF and PNF roles professionalism team responsibility personality, attitude and motivation – – – – – d. examples of software, hardware, environment and liveware mismatches in practice leadership/”followership” and authority – – – – – – – c. JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) listening feedback standard phraseologies assertiveness participation crew co-ordination procedures – – – flight techniques and cockpit procedures standard phraseologies discipline 69 The use of checklists is of special importance for an orderly and safe conduct of the flights. Different philosophies have been developed for the use of checklists. Whichever philosophy is used depends on the complexity of the aircraft concerned, the situation presented, the flight crew composition and their operating experience and the operator's procedures as laid down in the Flight Operations Manual. 7 10 Mutual supervision, information and support. a. Any action in handling the aircraft should be performed by mutual supervision. The pilot responsible for the specific action or task (PF or PNF) should be advised when substantial deviations (flight path, aircraft configuration etc.) are observed. b. Call-out procedures are essential, especially during take-off and approach, to indicate progress of the flight, systems status etc. c. Operation of aircraft systems, setting of radios and navigation equipment etc. should not be performed without demand by the PF or without information to the PF and his confirmation. The contents of paragraphs 3 and 4 can best be practised by performing the exercises in IEM 8 11 FCL 1.261(d) in simulated commercial air transport operations. Practice and feedback of MCC with regard to the L-L (liveware-liveware) interface should also 9 12 make provision for students for self and peer critique in order to improve communication, decision making and leadership skills. This phase is best accomplished through the use of flight simulators and 72 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) video equipment. Video feedback is particularly effective because it allows participants to view themselves from a third-person perspective; this promotes acceptance of one's weak areas which encourages attitude and behavioural changes. EXERCISES 10 The exercises should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment. The instruction should cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation including documentation, and computation of take-off performance data; b. pre-flight checks including radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; c. before take-off checks including powerplant checks, and take-off briefing by PF; d. normal take-offs with different flap settings, tasks of PF and PNF, call-outs; e. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass; engine failure after V1; f. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems, use of checklists; g. selected emergency procedures to include engine failure and fire, smoke control and removal, windshear during take-off and landing, emergency descent, incapacitation of a flight crew member; h. early recognition of and reaction on approaching stall in differing aircraft configurations; i. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and automatic pilot, one engine simulated inoperative approaches, non-precision and circling approaches, approach briefing by PF, setting of navigation equipment, call-out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; j. go-arounds; normal and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude.\ k. landings, normal, crosswind and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. Where MCC training is combined with training for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane, the exercises 2(a), (b), (c), (f), (g) and (j) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. 73 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) REINFORCEMENT 11 13 No matter how effective the classroom curriculum, interpersonal drills, LOFT exercises, and feedback techniques are, a single exposure during the multi-crew co-operation course for the initial issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating will be insufficient. The attitudes and influences which contribute to ineffective crew co-ordination are ubiquitous and may develop over a pilot's lifetime. Thus it will be necessary that the training of non-technical skills will be an integral part of all recurrent training for revalidation of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating as well as of the training for the issue of further multi-pilot type ratings. 74 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) IEM FCL 1.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) See JAR–FCL 1.261(d) This IEM has been incorporated into AMC FCL 1.261(d)) 1 Multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is set out in AMC FCL 1.261(d). This IEM gives guidelines for the exercises that may be used in the MCC training. 2 The exercises should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment. The instruction should cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation including documentation, and computation of take-off performance data; b. pre-flight checks including radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; c. before take-off checks including powerplant checks, and take-off briefing by PF; d. normal take-offs with different flap settings, tasks of PF and PNF, call-outs; e. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass; engine failure after V1; f. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems, use of checklists; g. selected emergency procedures to include engine failure and fire, smoke control and removal, windshear during take-off and landing, emergency descent, incapacitation of a flight crew member; h. early recognition of and reaction on approaching stall in differing aircraft configurations; i. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and automatic pilot, one engine simulated inoperative approaches, nonprecision and circling approaches, approach briefing by PF, setting of navigation equipment, call-out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; j. go-arounds; normal and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. k. landings, normal, crosswind and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. Where MCC training is combined with training for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane, the exercises 2(a), (b), (c), (f), (g) and (j) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. 75 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.300 Requirements for a specific authorisation for instructors not holding a JAR–FCL licence to instruct in a FTO or TRTO outside JAA Member States Amendment to paragraph (b) (b) The authorisation will be restricted as follows: (i) no instruction for the issue of any instructor ratings; (ii) no instruction within a JAA Member State (iii) (ii) instruction to students only who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the instruction is given (iv) (iii) no instruction for MCC. 76 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR–FCL 1.330 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) FI(A) – Privileges and requirements (See Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345) (See AMC FCL 1.395) Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) night flying, provided a night qualification is held, the ability to instruct at night has been demonstrated to an FI(A) authorised to conduct FI(A) training in accordance with JAR-FCL 1.330(f) and the night currency requirement of JAR-FCL 1.026 is satisfied; 77 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.330 & 1.345 Arrangements for the flight instructor rating (FI(A)) skill test, proficiency check and oral theoretical knowledge examination Amendment to paragraph 12 12 The examiner shall normally be the pilot-in-command, except in circumstances agreed by the examiner ..... 78 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340 Flight instructor rating (aeroplane) (FI(A)) course See JAR-FCL 1.340 See AMC FCL 1.340 New appendix coming from AMC FCL 1.340 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1 The aim of the FI(A) course is to train aeroplane licence holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a FI(A) rating and, for that purpose, to a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises; c. ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard; and d. teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at the PPL level. 2 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the Ground and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the PPL(A) course syllabus and should already be known by the applicant. 3 The FI(A) course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine and theoretical knowledge environment interaction. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 4 During the course, the applicants shall be made aware of their own attitudes to the importance of flight safety. Improving safety awareness shall be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a flight instructor’s task. 5 On successful completion of the course and final test the applicant may be issued with a FI(A) rating. TEACHING AND LEARNING 6 The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.340, Part 1. An approved FI(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise not less than 125 hours including progress tests. Pilots holding or having held a FI(H) rating are credited with 75 hours towards the 125 hours of the Teaching and Learning Part 1 of the FI(A) course. FLYING TRAINING 7 The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.340, Part 2. An approved FI(A) course shall comprise not less than 30 hours of flight instruction. SKILL TEST 8 On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.330 & 1.345. 79 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.340 Flight Instructor rating (Aeroplane) (FI(A)) course See JAR-FCL 1.340 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Amendment to the Course Objective. In part 2, a new paragraph 11 is added. COURSE OBJECTIVE The aim of this course is to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction in order to instruct for a PPL(A), a CPL(A), a single-engine piston class rating and, if applicable, a night qualification. 1 The course should be designed for the applicant to be given adequate training in ground and flying instructional techniques based upon established teaching methods. 2 On successful completion of the course and final test the applicant may be issued with a FI(A) rating permitting the holder to give flight training appropriate to the issue of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). 3 The FI(A) course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine and theoretical knowledge environment interaction. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 4 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the Ground and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the PPL(A) course syllabus and should already be known by the applicant. Therefore the purpose of the course is to: a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises; c. ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard; and d. teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at the PPL level. 5 During the course, the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the importance of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a flight instructor’s task and to achieve this the course curriculum, in terms of goals and objectives, should comprise at least the following areas: 80 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.340 (continued) PART 1 TEACHING AND LEARNING Item No. 1 THE LEARNING PROCESS Motivation Perception and understanding Memory and its application Habits and transfer Obstacles to learning Incentives to learning Learning methods Rates of learning 2 THE TEACHING PROCESS Elements of effective teaching Planning of instructional activity Teaching methods Teaching from the ‘known’ to the ‘unknown’ Use of ‘lesson plans’ 3 TRAINING PHILOSOPHIES Value of a structured (approved) course of training Importance of a planned syllabus Integration of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction 4 5 TECHNIQUES OF APPLIED INSTRUCTION a. Theoretical knowledge – Classroom instruction techniques Use of training aids Group lectures Individual briefings Student participation/discussion b. FLIGHT – Airborne instruction techniques The flight/cockpit environment Techniques of applied instruction Post-flight and inflight judgement and decision making STUDENT EVALUATION AND TESTING a. Assessment of student performance The function of progress tests Recall of knowledge Translation of knowledge into understanding 81 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Development of understanding into actions The need to evaluate rate of progress b. Analysis of student errors Establish the reason for errors Tackle major faults first, minor faults second Avoidance of over criticism The need for clear concise communication 6 TRAINING PROGRAMME DEVELOPMENT Lesson planning Preparation Explanation and demonstration Student participation and practice Evaluation 7 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS RELEVANT TO FLIGHT INSTRUCTION Physiological factors Psychological factors Human information processing Behavioural attitudes Development of judgement and decision making 8 HAZARDS INVOLVED IN SIMULATING SYSTEMS FAILURES AND MALFUNCTIONS IN THE AEROPLANE DURING FLIGHT Selection of a safe altitude Importance of ‘touch drills’ Situational awareness Adherence to correct procedures 9 NIGHT FLYING INSTRUCTION Objectives Legislation requirements Aeroplane equipment Aeroplane lights Flight crew licences Aerodrome licences (if applicable) Night familiarisation Preparation for flight Equipment required for flight Night vision accommodation Personal safety precautions in the parking areas External/internal checks – night considerations Aeroplane lights – operation 10 TRAINING ADMINISTRATION Flight/theoretical knowledge instruction records Pilot’s personal flying log book The flight/ground curriculum 82 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Study material Official forms Aircraft Flight/Owner’s Manuals/Pilot’s Operating Handbooks Flight authorisation papers Aircraft documents The private pilot’s licence regulations 83 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) PART 2 SUGGESTED APPROXIMATE BREAKDOWN OF HOURS FOR THE THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SECTION OF THE FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR (AEROPLANE) COURSE. (The item numbers shown below relate to the item numbers of ‘Teaching and learning’ above.) Item No Tuition hours Practice hrs in class 1 2.00 – Allow for questions and short discussion periods. 0.30 2 4.00 – The tuition time should allow for questions and short discussion periods. 1.00 3 2.00 – The PPL training syllabus should be used as reference material. 0.30 4.a. 5.00 32 The time spent in practice under this item will involve the applicants refreshing their technical knowledge, and developing their classroom instruction techniques. It will also include discussion between applicants and advice on teaching from the supervising instructor. 4.b. 4.00 32 The time spent in practice will be mainly directed to the giving of pre-flight briefings. It will allow the applicants to develop their ability to give a practical and short briefing (10–15 minutes) to a student pilot. The briefing will outline in a logical sequence the flight lesson to be undertaken. 5.a. 2.00 – Emphasis should be placed on the validity of questions used in progress tests. 1.00 5.b. 2.00 – Emphasis should be placed on the need to give encouragement to the student. 1.00 6 5.00 14 The time spent in practice will be directed towards the planning of classroom lesson periods and the development of the applicants’ ability to construct lesson plans. 7 5.00 – Scenarios relevant to good judgement and decision making should be set and analysed. 1.00 8 2.00 – Examples of hazards should cover a broad range of light aircraft and types of operation and not to be confined to the aircraft used on the course. 1.00 9 5.00 – Long briefings to teach an applicant to give instruction in night flying 10 2.00 – General revision of relevant documents. 40.00 78.00 TOTAL: Comment Progress tests 1.00 7.00 COURSE TOTAL: 125 HOURS (including progress tests) 84 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) PART 2 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION 1 The ground training consists of all instruction given on the ground for the purpose of the course by an appointed competent person, and includes classroom lectures, tutorials, long briefings and directed private study. AIR EXERCISES 1 2 The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of PPL(A) but with additional items designed to cover the needs of a flight instructor. 2 3 The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a broad instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the following interrelated factors: The applicant’s progress and ability The weather conditions affecting the flight The flight time available Instructional technique considerations The local operating environment It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar interrelated factors. They 3 4 should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises as necessary. GENERAL The briefing normally includes a statement of the aim and a brief allusion to principles of flight 4 5 only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be taught by the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include how the flight will be conducted with regard to who is to fly the aeroplane and what airmanship, weather and flight safety aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which the constituent parts are to be taught. 5 6 The four basic components of the briefing will be: 1 2 3 4 The aim Principles of Flight (briefest reference only) The Air Exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom) Airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.) PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS 6 7 The preparation of lesson plans is an essential pre-requisite of good instruction and the student instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight lesson plans. GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS The student instructor should complete flight training to practise the principles of basic instruction 7 8 at the PPL(A) level. 85 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 8 9 During this training, except when acting as a student pilot for mutual flights, the student instructor shall occupy the seat normally occupied by the FI(A). 9 10 It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate times during each flight. 10 If the privileges of the FI(A) rating are to include instruction for night flying, exercises 12 and 13 of the flight instruction syllabus should be undertaken at night in addition to by day either as part of the course or subsequent to rating issue. PART 3 FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS CONTENTS LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES 1 Familiarisation with the aeroplanes 2 Preparation for before and action after flight The rest of this AMC remains unchanged 86 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.355 FI(A) – Revalidation and renewal Adjustment to paragraph (a)(2) (a) (2) attended a FI refresher seminar (see AMC FCL 1.355(a)(2)), as approved by the Authority, within the validity period 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI rating; 87 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.360 Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) (TRI(MPA)) – Privileges Adjustment to this paragraph, including the addition of (a) and (b) (a) The privileges of the holder of a TRI(MPA) rating are to instruct licence holders for the issue of a MPA type rating, and the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation (see JAR–FCL 1.261(d) and AMC FCL 1.261(d)). (b) If the TRI(A) training is carried out in a flight simulator only, the TRI(A) rating will be restricted to exclude emergency/abnormal procedure training in an aircraft. To remove this restriction the holder of a TRI(A) rating shall perform the training contained in AMC FCL 1.365 Part 2 Paragraph 8 in an aeroplane. 88 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.365 Course for the type rating instructor rating for multi-pilot aeroplane (TRI) (MPA) See JAR-FCL 1.365 See AMC FCL 1.365 New appendix coming from AMC FCL 1.365 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1 The aim of the TRI(A) course is to train aeroplane licence holders with more than 1.500 hours as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a TRI(A) rating. The course shall be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction in order to instruct for any multi-pilot aeroplane type rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JARFCL 1.365). TEACHING AND LEARNING 2 The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.365. An approved TRI(A) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings are credited for the TRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the TRI course: FI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) FI(H), TRI(H), IRI(H) FLIGHT TRAINING 3 The flight training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.365. 89 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.365 Course for the type rating instructor rating for multi-pilot aeroplane (TRI) (MPA) See JAR-FCL 1.365 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.365, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. New paragraph 6 and amendment to paragraph 8 of Part 2 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1 The course should be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction in order to instruct for any multi-pilot aeroplane type rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JAR–FCL 1.365). 2 The holder of a FI(A) rating is exempted from Part 1 (Teaching and Learning) from this course. COURSE ADMINISTRATION 2 Each applicant should have a written personal progress report maintained throughout the course and each applicant’s teaching abilities should be assessed as satisfactory by the TRI designated by the Authority for this purpose before the TRI rating is issued. PART 2 TECHNICAL TRAINING Category II and III operations, if applicable 6 Flight simulator qualified and approved for ZFTT a. familiarisation with controls during outside checks; b. use of checklist, setting of radios and naviagation aids, starting engines; c. taxiing; d. take-off; e. engine failure during take-off shortly after V2, after reaching climt out attitude; f. other emergency procedures (if necessary); g. one engine simulated inoperative go around from requirement minimum DH; and h. one engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing. 67 a. precision approaches, automatic with auto-throttle and flight director go-around caused by aircraft or ground equipment deficiencies; b. c. d. go around caused by weather conditions; go around at DH caused by offset position from centreline; and one of the CAT II/CAT III approaches must lead to a landing. [Aeroplane (not applicable for applicants for SFI(A) authorisation)] 90 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Aeroplane (not applicable for applicants for SFI(A) authorisation or zero flight time training by a TRI(A)) 78 a. familiarisation with controls during outside checks; b. c. d. e. use of checklist, setting of radios and navigation aids, starting engines; taxiing; take-off; simulated engine failure during take-off shortly after V 2, after reaching climb out altitude; f. other emergency procedures (if necessary); g. instrument approach to required minimum DH, manual one engine out during approach and landing or go around; g. h. one engine simulated inoperative go around from required minimum DH; and h. i. one engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing. 91 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR-FCL 1.380 CRI(SPA) - Requirements Adjustment to paragraphs (a)(4), (b)(3) and (b)(4) (a) (4) passed a skill test in accordance with Appendix 1 and Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendix 2 Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345. (b) (3) completed an approved course at an approved FTO or TRTO including at least three hours flight instruction on the aeroplane or a flight simulator given by an instructor approved for this purpose (see Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380 and AMC FCL 1.380); and (4) passed a skill test in accordance with Appendix 1 and Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendix 2 Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345. 92 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380 Course for the single-pilot multi-engine class rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) See JAR-FCL 1.380 See AMC FCL 1.380 New Appendix coming from AMC FCL 1.380 1 The aim of this course is to train aeroplane licence holders with more than 500 hours as pilots of aeroplanes to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CRI(A) rating for multi-engine aeroplanes. The course shall be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction in order to instruct for any multi-engine aeroplane class rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JAR-FCL 1.380). TEACHING AND LEARNING 2 The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.380. An approved CRI(A) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings are credited for the CRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the CRI course: FI(A), IRI(A), TRI(A) FI(H), TRI(H), IRI(H) FLYING TRAINING 3 An applicant for the issue of a CRI(SPA)) rating for multi-engine aeroplanes shall complete not less than 5 hours of flying training given by an instructor, approved for this purpose. The flight training shall be aimed at ensuring that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently to students undergoing a course of training for the issue of a multi-engine class rating. The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 1.380. SKILL TEST 4 On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendix 1 and Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.330 & 1.345. 93 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 2 to JAR FCL 1.380 Course for the single-pilot single engine class rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) See JAR-FCL 1.380 See AMC FCL 1.380 New appendix coming from AMC FCL 1.380 1 The aim of this course is to train aeroplane licence holders with more than 300 hours as pilots of aeroplane to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a CRI(A) rating for single engine aeroplanes.- The course shall be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction in order to instruct for any single engine aeroplane class rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JAR FCL 1.380) TEACHING AND LEARNING 2 The syllabus is set out in AMC to JAR FCL 1.380. An approved CRI(A) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings credited for the CRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the CRI course: FI(A), IRI(A), TRI(A) FI(H), TRI(H), IRI(H) FLYING TRAINING 3. An applicant for the issue of a CRI(SPA)) rating for single engine aeroplanes shall complete not less than 3 hours of flying training given by an instructor, approved for this purpose. The flight training shall be aimed at ensuring that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently to students undergoing a course of training for the issue of a single engine class rating. SKILL TEST 4. On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendix 1 and Sections 2, 3 and 7 of Appendix 2 to JAR FCL 1.330 & 1.345 94 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.380 Course for the single-pilot multi-engine class rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) See JAR-FCL 1.380 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Amendment under title of PART 1 Amendment to “in flight engine failure”, in PART 3 COURSE OBJECTIVE: 1 The aim of this course is to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge and flight instruction in order to instruct for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating. 1 The course of training should comprise the following: a. b. c. Ground subjects; Long briefings normal, abnormal flight and emergencies; and Air exercises normal, abnormal flight and emergencies, including a minimum of 4 hours of flight training in asymmetric procedures. GROUND TRAINING 2 This syllabus is concerned only with the training on multi-engine aeroplanes. Therefore, other knowledge areas, common to both single- and multi-engine aeroplanes, should be revised as necessary to cover the handling and operating of the aeroplane with all engines operative, using the applicable sections of the Ground Subjects Syllabus for the flight instructor course (AMC FCL 1.340). Additionally, the ground training should include 25 hours of classroom work to develop the applicant’s ability to teach a student the knowledge and understanding required for the air exercise section of the multi-engine training course. This part will include the long briefings for the air exercises. FLIGHT TRAINING 3 The flight training should be aimed at ensuring that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently to students undergoing a course of training for the issue of a multi-engine class rating. COURSE COMPLETION STANDARD 4 Upon completion of the course, the applicant is required to pass a skill test in accordance with Sections 2, 3, 5 and 7 of Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345 for a CRI(SPA) rating for multi-engine aeroplanes; and a skill test in accordance with Sections 2, 3 and 7 of Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345 for a CRI(SPA) rating for single-engine aeroplanes. 95 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) PART 3 FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS - NORMAL FLIGHT LONG BRIEFINGS IN FLIGHT ENGINE FAILURE In cruise or other flight phase not including take-off or landing. Immediate Actions: Recognition of Asymmetric Condition Identification and Confirmation of Failed Engine - idle leg - idle engine - closing of throttle for confirmation Cause and Fire Check - typical reasons for failure - methods of rectification Feathering Decision and Procedure - reduction of other drag - need for speed but not haste - use of rudder trim Subsequent Actions: Live Engine - temperature, pressures and power - remaining services - electrical load - assess and reduce as necessary - effect on power source for air driven instruments - landing gear - flaps and other services Re-plan Flight - ATC and weather - terrain clearance, single-engine cruise speed - decision to divert or continue Fuel Management - best use of remaining fuel Dangers of re-starting damaged engine Action if unable to maintain altitude - effect of altitude on power available Effects on Performance Effects on power available and power required Effects on various airframe configuration and propeller settings Use of Flight/Owner's Manual - cruising - climbing - ASI colour coding (blue line) - descending - turning "Live" Engine Limitations and Handling Take-Off and Approach - Control and Performance The rest of this AMC remains unchanged. 96 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR FCL 1.395 Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (IRI(A)) See JAR-FCL 1.395 See AMC FCL 1.395 New Appendix coming from AMC FCL 1.395 1. The aim of this course is to train aeroplane licence holders with more than 800 hours flight time under IFR of which at least 400 hours shall be on aeroplanes to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of an IRI(A) rating. The course shall be designed to give the applicant adequate training in ground and flying instructional techniques based upon established teaching methods. TEACHING AND LEARNING 2. Syllabus is set out in AMC to JAR FCL 1.395. An approved IRI(A) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings are credited for the IRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the IRI course: FI(H), TRI(H) FI(A), CRI(A), TRI(A) Pilots holding a IRI(H) which meet the requirements set out in JAR-FCL 1.395(a) are credited of the course except for the “Long Briefing 2”, “Air Exercise 2” and Skill Test. FLIGHT TRAINING 3. An approved IRI(A) course shall comprise not less than 10 hours of flight training on an aeroplane, flight simulator or FPNT II. SKILL TEST 4. On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR FCL 1.330 & 1.345. 97 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (IRI(A)) See JAR–FCL 1.395 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.395 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.395, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Changes to Part 2 and to Part 3 1 The course of training should comprise ground subjects, long briefings and air exercises. COURSE OBJECTIVE 2 The course should be designed for the applicant to be given adequate training in ground and flying instructional techniques based upon established teaching methods. 3 On successful completion of the course, the applicant may be issued with an instrument rating instructor rating permitting the holder to give ground and flight training appropriate to the issue of an instrument rating. 4 1 The IRI(A) course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine environment. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s levels of maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 5 2 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the theoretical and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the Instrument Rating Pilot Course Syllabus which should already be known by the applicant. Therefore the objective of the course is to: a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train pilots in accordance with the requirements of the modular instrument flying training course (Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.210); c. enable the applicant to develop the necessary instructional techniques required for teaching of instrument flying, radio navigation and instrument procedures to the level required for the issue of an instrument rating; and d. ensure that the student instrument rating instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard. 6 3 During the course, the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the important aspect of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to an instructor’s task and to achieve this, the course curriculum, in terms of objectives should comprise at least the following areas. 7 The holder of a FI(A) rating is exempted from Part One (Teaching and learning) from this course. 98 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) PART 2 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS The theoretical subjects covered below should be used to develop the instructor’s teaching skills. The items selected should relate to the student’s background and should be applied to training for an IR(A). GENERAL SUBJECTS PHYSIOLOGICAL/PSYCHOLOGICAL FACTORS The Senses Spatial Disorientation Sensory Illusions Stress FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS Airspeed Indicator Altimeter Vertical Speed Indicator Attitude Indicator Heading Indicator Turn and Balance Slip Indicator/Turn Co-ordinator Magnetic Compass In relation to the above instruments the following items should be covered: Principles of Operation Errors and in-flight Serviceability Checks System Failures RADIO NAVIGATION AIDS Basic Radio Principles Use of VHF RTF Channels The Morse Code Basic Principles of Radio Aids VHF Omni Range (VOR) Ground and Aeroplane Equipment Non Directional Beacons (NDB/ADF) Ground and Aeroplane Equipment VHF Direction Finding (VHF/DF) Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR) Ground Equipment Primary Radar Secondary Surveillance Radar Aeroplane Equipment Transponders Precision Approach System Other Navigational Systems (as applicable) in current Operational use 99 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Ground and Aeroplane Equipment Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) Ground and Aeroplane Equipment Marker Beacons Ground and Aeroplane Equipment Pre-flight Serviceability Checks Range, Accuracy and Limitations of Equipment FLIGHT PLANNING CONSIDERATIONS AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATIONS The course of training should cover the items listed below, but the applicant’s aptitude and previous aviation experience should be taken into account when determining the amount of instructional time allotted. Although a number of items contained under this heading are complementary to those contained in the PPL/CPL/IR syllabi, the instructor should ensure that they have been covered during the applicant’s training and due allowance should be made for the time needed to revise these items as necessary. The Aeronautical Information Publication NOTAM Class 1 and 2 Aeronautical Information Circulars Information of an Operational Nature The Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services (RAC) Visual Flight Rules and Instrument Flight Rules Flight Plans and ATS Messages Use of Radar in Air Traffic Services Radio Failure Classification of Airspace Airspace Restrictions and Hazards Holding and Approach to Land Procedures Precision Approaches/Non Precision Approaches Radar Approach Procedures Missed Approach Procedures Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Conflict Hazards in Uncontrolled Airspace Communications Types of Services Extraction of AIP Data Relating to Radio Aids Charts Available En-route Departure and Arrival Instrument Approach and Landing Amendments, Corrections and Revision Service FLIGHT PLANNING GENERAL The Objectives of Flight Planning 100 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Factors Affecting Aeroplane and Engine Performance Selection of Alternate(s) Obtaining Meteorological Information Services Available Met Briefing Telephone Communication Direct with Forecaster Telephone or Electronic Data Processing Actual Weather Reports (TAFs, METARs and SIGMET Messages) The Route Forecast The Operational Significance of the Meteorological Information Obtained (including Icing, Turbulence and Visibility) Altimeter Considerations Definitions of Transition Altitude Transition Level Flight Level QNH Regional QNH Standard Pressure Setting QFE Altimeter Setting Procedures Pre-flight Altimeter Checks Take off and Climb En-Route Approach and Landing Missed Approach Terrain Clearance Selection of a Minimum Safe En-Route Altitude Instrument Flight Rules Preparation of Charts Choice of Routes and Flight Levels Compilation of Flight Plan/Log Sheet Log Sheet Entries Navigation Ground Aids to be used Frequencies/Codings Identification Radials and Bearings Tracks and Fixes Safety Altitude(s) Fuel Calculations ATC Frequencies (VHF) Tower, Approach, En-Route, Radar, FIS, ATIS, and Weather Reports Minimum Safe Sector Altitudes En-Route at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes Determination of Minimum Safe Descent Heights/Altitudes (Decision Heights) at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes THE PRIVILEGES OF THE INSTRUMENT RATING Outside Controlled Airspace Within Controlled Airspace Period of Validity and Renewal Procedures 101 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) PART 3 FLIGHT TRAINING SYLLABUS LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES 1 Instrument Flying (For revision as deemed necessary by the Course Instructor) 2 Instrument Flying (Advanced) 3 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of VOR 4 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of NDB 5 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of VHF/DF 6 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of DME 7 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of Transponders 8 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of En-Route Radar Services 9 Pre-flight and Aerodrome Departure and Arrival Procedures 10 Instrument Approach – ILS Approaches to Specified Minima – Missed Approach Procedures 11 Instrument Approach – NDB Approaches to Specified Minima – Missed Approach Procedures [12 Radio Navigation (applied procedures) use of GPS (to be developed)] LONG BRIEFING 1 INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic) Flight Instruments Physiological Considerations Instrument Appreciation Attitude Instrument Flight Pitch Indications Bank Indications Different Instrument Presentations Introduction to the Use of the Attitude Indicator Pitch Attitude Bank Attitude Maintenance of Heading and Balanced flight Instrument Limitations (inc. System Failures) ATTITUDE, POWER & PERFORMANCE Attitude Instrument Flight Control Instruments Performance Instruments Effect of Changing Power and configuration Cross Checking the Instrument Indications Instrument Interpretation Direct and Indirect Indications (Performance Instruments) Instrument Lag Selective Radial Scan 102 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) THE BASIC FLIGHT MANOEUVRES (FULL PANEL) Straight and Level Flight at Various Airspeeds and Aeroplane Configurations Climbing Descending Standard Rate Turns Level, Climbing and Descending On to Pre-Selected Headings AIR EXERCISE 1 INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic) Physiological Sensations Instrument Appreciation Attitude Instrument Flight Pitch Attitude Bank Attitude Maintenance of Heading and Balanced Flight Attitude Instrument Flight Effect of Changing Power and configuration Cross Checking the Instruments Selective Radial Scan THE BASIC FLIGHT MANOEUVRES (FULL PANEL) Straight and Level Flight at various Airspeeds and Aeroplane Configurations Climbing Descending Standard Rate Turns Level, Climbing and Descending on to Pre-Selected Headings LONG BRIEFING 2 INSTRUMENT FLYING (Advanced) Full Panel 30ø Level Turns Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries Transference to Instruments after Take-off Limited Panel Basic Flight Manoeuvres Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries AIR EXERCISE 2 Full Panel 30ø Level Turns Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries Identification and Recovery from Low Pitch Steep Bank and High Pitch Steep Bank Attitudes 103 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Limited Panel Repeat of the Above Exercises LONG BRIEFING 3 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VOR (VHF OMNI RANGE) Availability of VOR Stations En-Route Station Frequencies and Identification Coding Signal Reception Range Effect of Altitude VOR Radials Method of Numbering Use of Omni Bearing Selector To/From Indicator Orientation Selecting Radials Intercepting a Pre-Selected Radial Assessment of Distance to Interception Effects of Wind Maintaining a Radial Tracking To/From a VOR Station Procedure Turns Station Passage Use of Two Stations for Obtaining a Fix Pre-Selecting Fixes Along a Track Assessment of Ground Speed and ETA Timing Holding Procedures Various Entries Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) AIR EXERCISE 3 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VOR (VHF OMNI RANGE) Station Selection and Identification Orientation Intercepting a Pre-Selected Radial R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison Maintaining a Radial Inbound Recognition of Station Passage Maintaining a Radial Outbound Procedure Turns Use of Two Stations to Obtain a Fix Along the Track Assessment of Ground Speed and ETA Timing Holding Procedures/Entries Entries Holding at a Pre-Selected Fix Holding at a VOR Station 104 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) LONG BRIEFING 4 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF ADF (AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING EQUIPMENT) Availability of NDB (Non Directional Beacons) Facilities En-Route Location, Frequencies, Tuning (as applicable) and Identification Codes Signal Reception Range Static Interference Night Effect Station Interference Mountain Effect Coastal Refraction Orientation in Relation to a NDB Homing Intercepting a Pre-Selected Magnetic Bearing and Tracking Inbound Station Passage Tracking Outbound Time/Distance Checks Use of Two NDBs to Obtain a Fix or alternatively use of One NDB and One other Navaid Holding Procedures/Various Approved Entries Various Approved Entries Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) AIR EXERCISE 4 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF ADF (AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING EQUIPMENT) Selecting, Tuning and Identifying a NDB ADF Orientation Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Homing Tracking Inbound Station Passage Tracking Outbound Time/Distance Checks Intercepting a Pre-Selected Magnetic Bearing Determining the Aeroplane’s position from Two NDBs or alternatively from One NDB and One Other Navaid ADF Holding Procedures/Various Approved Entries Various Approved Entries LONG BRIEFING 5 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VHF/DF (Very High Frequency/Direction Finding) Availability of VHF/DF Facilities En-Route Location, Frequencies, Station Call Signs and Hours of Operation 105 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Signal and Reception Range Effect of Altitude Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Obtaining and Using Types of Bearings, e.g. QTE, QDM, QDR Homing to a Station Effect of Wind Use of Two VHF/DF Stations to Obtain a Fix (or alternatively One VHF/DF Station and One other Navaid) Assessment of Groundspeed and ETA’s Timing AIR EXERCISE 5 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VHF/DF (Very High Frequency/Direction Finding) Establishing Contact with a VHF/DF Station R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison Obtaining and Using a QDR and QTE Homing to a Station Effect of Wind Use of Two VHF/DF Stations to Obtain a Fix (or alternatively One VHF/DF Station and One other Navaid) Assessment of Groundspeed and ETA’s Timing LONG BRIEFING 6 USE OF DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) Availability of DME Facilities Location, Frequencies and Identification Codes Signal Reception Range Slant Range Use of DME to obtain Distance, Groundspeed and Minutes to Run Timing Use of DME to obtain a Fix AIR EXERCISE 6 USE OF DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) Station Selection and Identification Use of Equipment Functions Distance Groundspeed Time to Run Timing DME Arc Approach DME Holding 106 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) LONG BRIEFING 7 USE OF TRANSPONDERS (SSR) Operation of Transponders Code Selection Procedure Emergency Codes Precautions when using Airborne Equipment AIR EXERCISE 7 USE OF TRANSPONDERS (SSR) Operation of Transponders Types of Transponders Code Selection Procedure Emergency Codes Precautions when Selecting the Required Code LONG BRIEFING 8 USE OF EN-ROUTE RADAR Availability of Radar Services Location, Station Frequencies, Call Signs and Hours of Operation AIP and NOTAMs Provision of Service Communication (R/T, Procedures and ATC Liaison) Airspace Radar Advisory Service Emergency Service Aircraft Separation Standards AIR EXERCISE 8 USE OF EN-ROUTE RADAR Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Establishing the Service Required and Position Reporting Method of Reporting Conflicting Traffic Terrain Clearance LONG BRIEFING 9 PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE Determining the Serviceability of the Aeroplane Radio Navigation Equipment Obtaining the Departure Clearance Setting up Radio Navaids prior to Take-off e.g. VOR Frequencies, Required Radials, etc. Aerodrome Departure Procedures, Frequency Changes Altitude and Position Reporting as Required Standard Instrument Departure Procedures (SIDs) 107 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Obstacle Clearance Considerations AIR EXERCISE 9 PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE Radio Equipment Serviceability Checks Departure Clearance Navaid Selection Frequencies, Radials, etc. Aerodrome Departure Checks, Frequency Changes, Altitude and Position Reports Standard Instrument Departure Procedures (SIDs) LONG BRIEFING 10 INITIAL/INTERMEDIATE/FINAL APPROACH PROCEDURES Precision Approach Charts Approach to the Initial Approach Fix and Minimum Sector Altitude Navaid Requirements, e.g. Radar, ADF, etc. Communication (ATC Liaison and R/T Phraseology) Review: Holding Procedure The Final Approach Track Forming a Mental Picture of the Approach Completion of Aerodrome Approach Checks Initial Approach Procedure Selection of the ILS Frequency and Identification of Coding Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height Operating Minima Achieving the Horizontal and Vertical Patterns Assessment of Distance, Groundspeed Time, and Rate of Descent from the Final Approach Fix to the Aerodrome Use of DME (as applicable) Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Review of the Published Instructions Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) VISUAL MANOEUVRING AFTER AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing AIR EXERCISE 10 PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Initial Approach to the ILS Completion of Approach Planning Holding Procedure Frequency Selection and Identification of ILS Review of the Published Procedure and Minimum Safe Sector Altitude Communication (ATC Liaison and R/T Phraseology) Determination of Operating Minima and Altimeter Setting 108 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) Weather Consideration, e.g. Cloud Base and Visibility Availability of Runway Lighting ILS Entry Methods Radar Vectors Procedural Method Assessment of Approach Time from the Final Approach Fix to the Aerodrome Determination of: The Descent Rate on Final Approach The Landing Runway and whether a Straight or Angled Approach will be required The Wind Velocity at the Surface and the Length of the Landing Runway The Obstruction Heights to be borne in mind during Visual manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling approach The Approach: At the Final Approach Fix Use of DME (as applicable) ATC liaison Note Time and establish Airspeed and Descent Rate Maintaining the Localiser and Glide Path Anticipation in Change of Wind Velocity and its Effect on Drift Decision Height Runway Direction Overshoot and Missed Approach Procedure Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing LONG BRIEFING 11 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Non-Precision Approach Charts Initial Approach to the Initial Approach Fix and Minimum Sector Altitude ATC Liaison Communication (ATC Procedures and R/T Phraseology) Approach Planning: Holding Procedure The Approach Track Forming a Mental Picture of the Approach Initial Approach Procedure Operating Minima Completion of Approach Planning Achieving the Horizontal and Vertical Patterns Assessment of Distance, Groundspeed Time, and Rate of Descent from the Final Approach Fix (FAF) to the Aerodrome Use of DME (as applicable) Go around and Missed Approach Procedure Review of the Published Instructions Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing 109 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.395 (continued) AIR EXERCISE 11 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Completion of Approach Planning including Determination of: Descent Rate from the Final Approach Fix The Landing Runway and whether a Straight or Angled Approach will be Required The Wind Velocity at the Surface and Length of the Landing Runway The Obstruction Heights to be Borne in Mind During Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling Approach Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Initial Approach to the NDB Frequency Selection and Identification of NDB Review of the Published Procedure and Minimum Safe Sector Altitude ATC liaison and R/T Phraseology Determination of Decision Height and Altimeter Setting Weather Considerations, e.g. Cloud Base and Visibility Availability of Runway Lighting Determination of Inbound Track Assessment of Time from Final Approach Fix to the Missed Approach Point Holding at the Fix Aid ATC Liaison The Outbound Procedure (incl. Completion of Pre-Landing Checks) The Inbound Procedure Re-Check of Identification Code Altimeter Setting Re-Checked The Final Approach Note Time and Establish Airspeed and Descent Rate Maintaining the Final Approach Track Anticipation of Change in Wind Velocity and its Effect on the Drift Minimum Descent Altitude/Height Runway Direction Go around and Missed Approach Procedure Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) Visual Approach Straight or Angled as Necessary LONG BRIEFING 12 AIR EXERCISES Use of GPS (to be developed) INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 110 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.415 SFI(A) – Revalidation and renewal Adjustment to paragraphs (a) and (b) (a) For revalidation of a SFI(A) authorisation the applicant shall within the last 12 months of the validity period of the authorisation : (1) conduct one simulator session of at least 3 hours as part of a complete type rating/refresher/recurrent training course; and or (2) have completed a proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.240 on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. (b) have: If the authorisation has lapsed the applicant shall (1) completed the simulator content of the applicable type rating course; (2) successfully completed an approved TRI(A) course as agreed by the Authority (see AMC FCL 1.365); and (3) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of a TRI(A) on the applicable type of aeroplane under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRI(A) notified by the Authority for this purpose; and (4) have completed a proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.240 on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. 111 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425 Standardisation arrangements for examiners See JAR-FCL 1.425 & 1.430 See AMC FCL 1.425 New Appendix (the text is coming from AMC FCL 1.425) GENERAL 1 Each JAA Member State will publish and submit to JAA a list of authorised examiners specifying each role and any additional matters for which they have been authorised. EXAMINERS DESIGNATION AND AUTHORISATION 2 An examiner will be designated and authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL and will be: (a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or (b) an instructor from a Registered Facility, FTO, TRTO; manufacturer’s facility or subcontracted facility; or (c) a pilot holding a specific authorisation from a JAA Member State. 3 All Examiners must be suitably trained, qualified and experienced for their role on the relevant type/class of aeroplane. No specific rules on qualification can be made because the particular circumstance of each organisation will differ. It is important, however, that in every instance, the Examiner should, by background and experience, command the professional respect of the training organisation’s senior personnel. EXAMINER RE-AUTHORISATION 4 Examiners may be reauthorised in accordance with JAR-FCL 1.430. To be reauthorised, the examiner shall have conducted at least two skill tests or proficiency checks in every yearly period within the three year authorisation period. One of the skill tests or proficiency checks given by the examiner within the validity period of the authorisation shall have been observed by an inspector of the Authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised for this purpose. 112 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) AMC FCL 1.425 Standardisation arrangements for examiners See JAR–FCL 1.425 & 1.430 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425 Part of this AMC (paras 3, 6, 7 and 8) is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425, therefore, for clarity purposes, this AMC is re-written as follows GENERAL 1 The standards of competence of pilots depends to a great extent on the competence of examiners. Examiners will be briefed by the Authority on the JAR–FCL requirements, the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks, and their documentation and reporting. Examiners should also be briefed on the protection requirements for personal data, liability, accident insurance and fees, as applicable in the JAA Member State concerned. 2 Each JAA Member State will publish and submit to JAA a list of authorised examiners specifying each role and any additional matters for which they have been authorised. EXAMINER AUTHORISATION 2 3 Any dispensation from the qualification requirements of JAR–FCL 1.425(a) through (c) should be limited to circumstances in which a fully qualified examiner cannot be made available. Such circumstances may, for example, include skill tests on a new or rare type or class, for which the examiner should at least hold an instructor rating on an aeroplane having the same kind and number of engines and of the same order of mass. 3 4 Inspectors of the Authority supervising examiners will ideally meet the same requirements as the examiners being supervised. However, it is unlikely that they could be so qualified on the large variety of types and tasks for which they have a responsibility and, since they normally only observe training and testing, it is acceptable if they are qualified for the role of an inspector. 4 5. The standardisation arrangements should include, as appropriate to the role of the examiner, at least the following instruction: (i) those national requirements relevant to their examination duties; (ii) fundamentals of human performance and limitations relevant to flight examination; (iii) fundamentals of evaluation relevant to examinee’s performance; (iv) JAR-FCL, related JARs and Joint Implementation Procedures (JIP) (v) Quality System as related to JAR-FCL; and (vi) Multi-crew co-operation (MCC), Human Performance and Limitations, if applicable. The Authority will employ, or have available, a sufficient number of inspectors or senior examiners to conduct, supervise and/or inspect the standardisation arrangements according to JAR-FCL 1.425(c). DESIGNATION, AUTHORISATION AND RE-AUTHORISATION OF EXAMINERS 6 An examiner will be designated and authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL and will be: (a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or (b) an instructor from a Registered Facility, FTO, TRTO; manufacturer’s facility or subcontracted facility; or (c) a pilot holding a specific authorisation from a JAA Member State. 7 All Examiners must be suitably trained, qualified and experienced for their role on the relevant type/class of aeroplane. No specific rules on qualification can be made because the particular 113 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) circumstance of each organisation will differ. It is important, however, that in every instance, the Examiner should, by background and experience, command the professional respect of the training organisation’s senior personnel. 8. Examiners may be re-authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL 1.430. To be re-authorised, the examiner should have conducted at least two skill tests or proficiency checks in every yearly period within the three year authorisation period. One of the skill tests or proficiency checks given by the examiner within the last 12 months of the authorisation period should have been observed by an inspector of the authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised for this purpose. LIMITATIONS An examiner should plan per working day not more than three test checks relating to PPL, CPL, 5 9. IR or class rating, or more than two tests/checks related to FI, CPL/IR and ATPL or more than four tests/checks relating to type/rating. 6 10. An examiner should plan at least three hours for a PPL, CPL, IR or class rating test/checks, and at least four hours for FI, CPL/IR, ATPL or type rating tests/checks, including pre-flight briefing and preparation, conduct of the test/check, de-briefing and evaluation of the applicant and documentation. 7 11. An examiner should allow an applicant adequate time to prepare for a test/check, normally not more than one hour. 8 12. An examiner should plan a test/check flight so that the flight time in an aeroplane or ground time in an approved synthetic training device is not less than: a. b. c. 90 minutes for PPL and CPL, including navigation section; 60 minutes for IR, FI and single pilot type/class rating; and 120 minutes for CPL/IR and ATPL. PURPOSE OF A TEST/CHECK 9 13. Determine through practical demonstration during a test/check that an applicant has acquired or maintained the required level of knowledge and skill/proficiency; 10 14. Improve training and flight instruction in registered facilities, FTOs and TRTOs by feedback of information from examiners concerning items/sections of tests/checks that are most frequently failed; 11 15. Assist in maintaining and, where possible, improving air safety standards by having examiners display good airmanship and flight discipline during tests/checks. JAR-FCL STANDARDS 12 16. It is essential that examiners consistently apply JAR-FCL standards during a test/check. However, as the circumstances of each test/check conducted by an examiner may vary, it is also important that an examiner’s test/check assessment takes into account any adverse condition(s) encountered during the test/check. CONDUCT OF TEST/CHECK 13 17. An examiner will ensure that an applicant completes a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements and is assessed against the required test/check standards. Each item within a test/check section should be completed and assessed separately. A 14 18. failed item is a failed section. The test/check schedule, as briefed, should not, normally, be altered by an examiner. 114 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 15 19. Marginal or questionable performance of a test/check item should not influence an examiner’s assessment of any subsequent items. 16 20. An examiner should verify the requirements and limitations of a test/check with an applicant during the pre-flight briefing. 17 21. When a test/check is completed or discontinued, an examiner should de-brief the applicant and give reasons for items/sections failed. In the event of a failed or discontinued skill test or proficiency check, the examiner should provide appropriate advice to assist the applicant in re-tests/re-checks. 18 22. Any comment on, or disagreement with, an examiner’s test/check evaluation/assessment made during a debrief will be recorded by the examiner on the test/check report, and will be signed by the examiner and countersigned by the applicant. EXAMINER PREPARATION 19 23. An examiner should supervise all aspects of the test/check flight preparation, including, where necessary, obtaining or assuring an ATC “slot” time. 20 24. An examiner will plan a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements. Only the manoeuvres and procedures set out in the appropriate test/check form will be undertaken. The same examiner should not re-examine a failed applicant without the agreement of the applicant. EXAMINER APPROACH 21 25. An examiner should encourage a friendly and relaxed atmosphere to develop both before and during a test/check flight. A negative or hostile approach should not be used. During the test/check flight, the examiner should avoid negative comments or criticisms and all assessments should be reserved for the de-briefing. ASSESSMENT SYSTEM 22 26. Although test/checks may specify flight test tolerances, an applicant should not be expected to achieve these at the expense of smoothness or stable flight. An examiner should make due allowance for unavoidable deviations due to turbulence, ATC instructions, etc.. An examiner should terminate a test/check only for the purpose of assessing the applicant, or for safety reasons. An examiner will use one of the following terms for assessment: a. A “pass”, provided the applicant demonstrates the required level of knowledge, skill/proficiency and, where applicable, remains within the flight test tolerances for the licence or rating; or b. A “fail”, provided that any of the following apply: i. the flight test tolerances have been exceeded after the examiner has made due allowance for turbulence or ATC instructions; ii. the aim of the test/check is not completed; iii. the aim of exercise is completed but at the expense of unsafe flight, violation of a rule or regulation, poor airmanship or rough handling; iv. an acceptable level of knowledge is not demonstrated; v. an acceptable level of flight management is not demonstrated; or vi. the intervention of the examiner or safety pilot is required in the interest of safety. c. FCL. A “partial pass” in accordance with the criteria shown in the relevant skill test appendix of JAR- METHOD AND CONTENTS OF THE TEST/CHECK 115 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 23 27. Before undertaking a test/check an examiner will verify that the aeroplane or synthetic training device intended to be used, is suitable and appropriately equipped for the test/check. Only aircraft or synthetic training devices approved by the Authority for skill testing/proficiency checking may be used. 24 28. A test/check flight will be conducted in accordance with the aircraft flight manual (AFM) and, if applicable, the aircraft operators manual (AOM). 25 29. A test/check flight will be conducted within the limitations contained in the operations manual of a FTO/TRTO and, where applicable, the operations manual of a registered facility. 26 30. Contents a. A test/check is comprised of: - oral examination on the ground (where applicable); - pre-flight briefing; - in-flight exercises; and - post-flight de-briefing b. Oral examination on the ground should include: - aircraft general knowledge and performance; - planning and operational procedures; and - other relevant items/sections of the test/check c. Pre-flight briefing should include: - test/check sequence; - power setting and speeds; and - safety considerations d. In-flight exercises will include: - each relevant item/section of the test/check e. Post-flight de-briefing should include: - assessment/evaluation of the applicant - documentation of the test/check with the applicants FI present, if possible. 27 31. A test/check is intended to simulate a practical flight. Accordingly, an examiner may set practical scenarios for an applicant while ensuring that the applicant is not confused and air safety is not compromised. 28 32. An examiner should maintain a flight log and assessment record during the test/check for reference during the post/flight de-brief. 29 33. An examiner should be flexible to the possibility of changes arising to pre-flight briefs due to ATC instructions, or other circumstances affecting the test/check. 30 34. Where changes arise to a planned test/check an examiner should be satisfied that the applicant understands and accepts the changes. Otherwise, the test/check flight should be terminated. 31 35. Should an applicant choose not to continue a test/check for reasons considered inadequate by an examiner, the applicant will be assessed as having failed those items/sections not attempted. If the test/check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only these items/sections not completed will be tested during a subsequent test/check. 32 36. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test/check may be repeated once by the applicant. An examiner may terminate a test/check at any stage, if it is considered that the applicant’s competency requires a complete re-test/re-check. 116 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 117 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.430 Examiners – Period of validity Adjustment to this paragraph. An examiner’s authorisation is valid for not more than three years. Examiners are re-authorised at the discretion of the Authority, and in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425. 118 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.445 Class rating examiner Privileges/Requirements (aeroplane) (CRE(A)) – Adjustment to this paragraph The privileges of a CRE(A) are to conduct: (a) skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes; (b) proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes and revalidation of instrument ratings; provided that the examiner holds or has held a professional pilot licence(A) and holds a PPL(A) and has completed not less than 500 hours as a pilot of aeroplanes. 119 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.470 Theoretical knowledge examination subjects / sections and length of examinations - ATPL, CPL and IR New Appendix - This was previously AMC FCL 1.470. To save on paper quantity, only the first page of this Appendix is included here. Aeroplane (A) ATPL Helicopter (H) CPL IR ATPL CPL IR (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) Airline Transport Pilot Licence Commercial Pilot Licence Instrument Rating (Aircraft) Airline Transport Pilot Licence Commercial Pilot Licence Instrument Rating (Aircraft) Subject Paper no 010 Air Law (B) 1 Exam length time Paper no 1.40 1 Exam length time 2 Exam length time Paper no 1 0.45 1 1.00 2.30 2 1.15 010 Air Law / Operational Procedures 020 Aircraft General Knowledge (B) Paper no Exam length time Paper no 1.40 1 2 Exam length time Paper no Exam length time 1.00 1 1.00 2.30 2 1.15 airframe/systems/power plant 2 2.00 (1.30) (0.15) 2 2.00 (1.30) (0.15) instruments/electronics 3 1.30 (1.00) (1.00) 3 1.30 (1.00) (1.00) 3 030 Flight Performance and Planning (B) 3.00 3 3 2.00 3.30 3 2.00 mass and balance 4 1.00 (0.45) 4 1.00 (1.00) performance 5 1.00 (0.45) 5 1.00 (1.00) flight planning & monitoring 6 3.00 (1.30) (2.00) 6 3.00 (1.30) 040 Human Performance & Limitations 7 1.00 4 0.30 4 0.30 7 1.00 4 0.30 4 0.30 050 Meteorology (B) 8 2.30 5 1.30 5 1.30 8 2.30 5 1.00 5 1.30 6 1.30 6 2.00 6 1.30 6 2.00 060 Navigation (2.00) general navigation 9 2.00 (1.00) (0.30) 9 2.00 (1.00) (0.30) radio navigation 10 1.30 (0.30) (1.30) 10 1.30 (0.30) (1.30) 070 Operational Procedures (B) 11 1.20 7 0.45 11 1.20 7 1.20 080 Principles of Flight (B) 12 1.00 8 0.45 12 1.00 8 1.00 9 090 Communications VFR communications 13 0.30 IFR communications 14 0.30 Total 14 20.30 9 0.30 7 (0.30) 11.45 7 9 0.30 13 0.30 (0.30) 14 0.30 8.45 14 20.30 9 0.30 7 (0.30) (0.30) 12.50 7 Note 1: refer to JAR-FCL 1.050(b) and 2.050(b) for crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge. Note 2: (B) indicates that “Bridge” examinations are required to convert from ATPL(A) to ATPL(H), and from ATPL(H) to ATPL(A). See AMC FCL 1.050 and 2.050. Note 3: the syllabus contained herein combines the theoretical knowledge syllabuses for Aeroplane and Helicopter. Column boxes marked with a cross (‘x’) indicate that knowledge of the relevant topic is required to be taught for the particular licence level. Column boxes marked with a bullet point (•) indicate that the sub-topic is NOT applicable to the particular licence level. 120 0.30 1 July 2000 8.45 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) IEM FCL 1.480 Distribution of examination questions See JAR-FCL 1.480 This entire IEM - which was a new IEM from NPA 5 - is now completely deleted. The IEM text is in the Joint Implementation Procedures. Subject : 010 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions CPL 0:45 Time : Total : IR 01:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 010 01 03 02 02 01 xx 03 01 xx 04 04 02 05 06 02 06 02 14 07 09 12 08 02 02 09 05 05 10 02 00 11 02 02 12 02 xx 13 01 01 40 42 ATPL 1:40 04 01 01 04 02 14 26 02 08 02 02 03 01 70 Subject : 020 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time 021 + 022 : Total : CPL 02:30 91 IR 01:15 46 ATPL (03:30) xx Subject : 021 AIRFRAME/SYSTEMS/POWER PLANT Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 01:30 00:15 02:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 021 01 15 06 29 02 10 05 21 03 24 xx 16 04 07 xx 18 56 11 84 121 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Subject : 022 INSTRUMENTATION Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 01:00 01:00 01:30 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 022 01 15 18 24 02 10 17 15 03 04 xx 09 04 06 xx 08 35 35 56 Subject : 030 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time 031+032+033: Total : CPL 03:00 9894 IR Flight Planning only xx ATPL (05:00) xx Subject : 031 MASS AND BALANCE Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 00:45 not applicable 01:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 031 01 05 xx 07 02 14 xx 18 03 07 xx 09 26 xx 34 Subject : 032 PERFORMANCE Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 00:45 not applicable 01:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 032 01 10 xx 06 02 18 xx 08 03 xx xx 23 28 xx 37 122 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Subject : 033 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 01:30 IR 02:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 033 01 13 13 02 10 10 03 11 05 04 xx 15 05 xx xx 06 06 05 40 48 ATPL 03:00 13 10 05 26 06 10 70 Subject : 040 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 00:30 IR 00:30 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 040 01 00 00 02 16 16 03 05 05 21 21 ATPL 01:00 00 32 10 42 Subject : 050 METEOROLOGY Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 01:30 IR 01:30 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 050 01 07 06 02 03 03 03 01 02 04 03 04 05 02 02 06 05 05 07 02 02 08 02 02 09 06 06 10 11 10 42 42 123 ATPL 02:30 09 10 03 05 02 07 04 07 10 13 70 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Subject : 060 NAVIGATION Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time 045 + 045 061+062: Total : CPL 1:30 IR 02:00 ATPL (03:30) 42 56 xx Subject : 061 GENERAL NAVIGATION Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 01:00 00:30 02:00 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 061 01 06 xx 09 02 04 xx 06 03 06 14 09 04 08 xx 11 05 04 xx 10 06 xx xx 08 28 14 53 Subject : 062 RADIO NAVIGATION Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL IR ATPL 00:30 01:30 01:30 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 062 01 12 16 14 02 02 11 10 03 xx xx xx 04 xx xx xx 05 xx 13 11 06 xx 02 07 14 42 42 124 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Subject : 070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 00:45 IR included in the Air Law Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 071 01 10 5 02 15 1 25 6 ATPL 01:20 28 24 52 Subject : 080 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 00:45 IR not applicable Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 081 01 10 xx 02 xx xx 03 xx xx 04 03 xx 05 03 xx 06 03 xx 07 03 xx 08 06 xx 28 xx 125 ATPL 01:00 09 02 03 05 06 03 03 08 39 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Subject : 090 COMMUNICATION Theoretical knowledge examination Exam length, minimum number of questions, and distribution of questions Time : Total : CPL 00:30 IR 00:30 Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus 090 01 05 xx 02 10 xx 03 01 xx 04 02 xx 05 02 xx 06 01 xx 07 xx 04 08 xx 11 09 xx 02 10 xx 03 11 xx 01 21 21 126 ATPL 01:00 05 10 01 02 02 01 04 11 02 03 01 42 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) JAR–FCL 1.490 Pass standards Adjustment to paragraph (e) (e) An applicant failing to pass all of the relevant examinations, or whatever lesser number of papers is allowed by JAR–FCL, within the time limits specified in paragraph (d) above will be required to re-enter the examinations as though for an initial attempt. Before reentry to the examinations, an applicant shall undertake further training as determined by the Authority. 127 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR–FCL 1.055 Training organisations facilities JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) and registered Amendments to paragraph (a)(2) (a) (1) ... (2) Reserved. FTOs wishing to offer training for licences and associated ratings whose principal place of business and registered office is located outside the JAA Member States, will be granted approval by a JAA full Member Authority in respect of any such location if: (a) an arrangement has been agreed between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, providing for the participation of that Authority in the approval process and provide regulatory oversight of the FTO; or (b) i) if adequate jurisdiction and supervision by the approving Authority can be assured; ii) the relevant additional requirements of Appendix 1c to JARFCL 1.055 are satisfied; and iii) an approval process accepted by the JAA is applied by the approving Authority. 14 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) Appendix 1c to JAR–FCL 1.055 Additional Requirements for training in FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States (See JAR-FCL 1.055(a)(2) (See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.300) New Appendix APPROVAL PROCESS 1 FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States wishing to train for JAR-FCL licences and associated ratings shall apply for approval of such courses to a National Authority of any full JAA Member State. Approval will be subject to: (a) The FTO shall meet the requirements of Appendix 1(a) to JAR-FCL 1.055 and any additional requirements of this Appendix; and (b) The Authority to which application has been made considers it possible to discharge its regulatory responsibilities for the approval process and an adequate level of supervision as required by the agreed JAA procedures. The cost and process of approval and supervision shall not put undue burden on the resources of the Authority; and (c) The approving JAA Authority can ensure adequate jurisdiction over the FTO during the approval process and the conduct of subsequent training courses. (d) The National Authority of the non-JAA State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office may assist the Authority of a JAA Member State in the approval process and provide oversight of training courses subject to an arrangement being agreed between the JAA and that non-JAA State. JURISDICTION 2 In the context of approval of FTOs located outside JAA Member States, the term ‘adequate jurisdiction’ shall mean that the Authority of the approving State shall be able to: (a) conduct initial and routine inspections of the FTO located in that non-JAA State to ensure compliance with the requirements of JAR-FCL; and (b) conduct flight tests and other standardisation checks as deemed necessary by the approving Authority; and (c) discharge its legal responsibilities for the grant, variation, suspension or revocation of approvals in accordance with the applicable law of the approving JAA Member State. The approving Authority may, subject to an arrangement between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, delegate responsibility for the provisions of paragraph 2(a) above to that non-JAA Authority. FTOs TRAINING FOR PROFESSIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS 17 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 3 Provided that the requirements set out in this Appendix are met, approval may be granted if the approving Authority considers adequate supervision in accordance with JAA procedures to be possible. 4 Instruction may only be given under the direct control of the CFI(A) or nominated deputy holding a JAR-FCL licence or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to at least a JAR-FCL CPL/IR(A), who must be present while flight training is being undertaken. 5 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences who meet the requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.300 to instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and FI(A) shall not exceed 4:1. 6 The skill test for the Instrument Rating shall be conducted in the JAA Member State of the approving Authority. FTOs shall make arrangements for the approved course to include acclimatisation flying within the JAA Member State prior to any student taking the instrument rating skill test with an examiner authorised by the approving Authority. 7 The navigation progress test in Phase 3 of the ATP integrated course may be conducted by a locally-based flight instructor approved by the JAA approving Authority and not connected with the applicant’s training, provided that the instructor holds a JAR-FCL licence containing FI(A) or CRI(A) privileges, as appropriate. On completion of the required training, the skill test for the CPL(A) in Phase 4 of the ATP integrated course may be taken with a locally-based FE(A) designated and authorised by the JAA approving Authority, provided that the examiner is authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL Subpart I and completely independent from the FTO except with the expressed consent in writing of the approving Authority. FTOs TRAINING FOR THE PPL(A) AND ASSOCIATED RATINGS ONLY 8 Provided that the requirements of this Appendix are met, approval to conduct courses for the JAR-FCL PPL(A) and associated ratings may be granted. 9 The management posts of Head of Training, Chief Flying Instructor and Chief Ground Instructor required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 may be combined, provided that the post holder holds at least a JAR-FCL CPL(A) or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to a JAR-FCL CPL(A). 10 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences with FI(A) rating to those holding JAA licences shall not exceed 8:1. Flight instructors holding non-JAA licences shall be acceptable to the approving Authority and shall: (a) hold at least a CPL(A) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 required by the respective non-JAA State for the instruction to be given on aircraft registered in that State; (b) hold a flight instructor rating valid in that State; (c) have at least 200 hours of flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as a flight instructor; (d) have demonstrated knowledge of the relevant JAA requirements. 11 Training aeroplanes, airfields and navigation training routes used for PPL training shall be acceptable to the approving Authority. 18 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.1 JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) 12 On completion of the required training the PPL(A) skill test may be taken by a locally-based flight examiner authorised by the approving Authority provided that the examiner has taken no part in the student’s flight instruction other than to conduct progress or safety checks during the course. 13 The Training and Operations Manuals required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 may, for FTOs conducting training for the PPL(A) and associated ratings only, be combined and contain only those references relevant to training for the PPL(A). FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS HOLDING JAR-FCL LICENCES 14 Flight Instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and ratings required to meet the provisions of paragraphs 5 and 10 above shall hold licences issued by a JAA Member State on the basis of meeting the requirements of JAR-FCL and not on the basis of a conversion of a non-JAA licence. Holders of licences converted on the basis of a nonJAA licence may be acceptable for this purpose if the FI(A) can demonstrate previous experience acceptable to the approving Authority of flight instruction for JAR-FCL licences. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 15 Training for theoretical knowledge may be given at a FTO conducting approved training outside the JAA Member States. The theoretical knowledge examinations for licence or rating issue shall be conducted by the approving Authority (see JAR-FCL 1.485). 19 1 July 2000 2. NPA-FCL-14.2 (Helicopter) NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR-FCL 2.001 Definitions and Abbreviations Addition of a new definition of co-pilot and deletion of the definition of Other Training Devices Co-pilot: “Co-pilot” means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the operational regulations under which the flight is conducted, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating. 1 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.005 Applicability New paragraph (a)(6) (a) General ….. (6) A licence issued on the basis of the training performed outside a JAA Member State, except training done according to JAR-FCL 2.055(a)(1), shall have an entry to limit the privileges to aircraft registered in the State of licence issue. 2 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.005 Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State. Amendment to paragraph 2, column 4 (Addition of an asterix) 2 Instructor ratings conversion National rating, authorisation or privileges held Experience Any further JAA requirements Replacement JAA rating (1) (2) (3) (4) FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H) as required under JAR– FCL for the relevant rating demonstrate a knowledge of the relevant parts of JAR–FCL and JAR–OPS as set out in AMC FCL 2.005 and 2.015 FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H)* * JAA Member States’ instructors fulfilling all the above replacement requirements, but unable to obtain relevant JAR-FCL licence/rating(s) due to present implementation status of their State of licence issue, may be accepted to instruct for JAR-FCL licence and/or rating(s) 3 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.005 & 2.015 Knowledge requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence on the basis of a national licence issued in a JAA Member State or for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States Addition of the paragraph references of Subpart H. JAR–FCL 2 (HELICOPTER) ….. JAR–FCL Subpart H – INSTRUCTOR RATINGS (Helicopter) - 2.300 - Instruction - General - 2.305 - Instructor ratings and authorisation – Purposes - 2.310 - Instructor ratings – General - 2.315 - Instructor ratings and authorisations – Period of validity - 2.320 - Flight Instructor rating (helicopter) (FI(H)) – Minimum age - 2.325 - FI(H) – Restricted privileges - 2.330 - FI(H) – Privileges and requirements - 2.335 - FI(H) – Pre-requisite requirements - 2.340 - FI(H) – Course - 2.345 - FI(H) – Skill - 2.350 - FI(H) – Rating issue - 2.355 - FI(H) – Revalidation and renewal - 2.360 - Type rating instructor rating (helicopter) (TRI(H)) – Privileges - 2.365 - TRI(H) – Requirements - 2.370 - TRI(H) – Revalidation and renewal - 2.390 - Instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) – Privileges - 2.395 - IRI(H) – Requirements - 2.400 - IRI(H) – Revalidation and renewal - 2.405 - Synthetic flight instructor authorisation (helicopter) (SFI(H)) – Privileges - 2.410 - SFI(H) – Requirements - 2.415 - SFI(H) – Revalidation and renewal - Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.300 - Requirements for a specific authorisation for instructors not holding a JAR–FCL licence to instruct in a FTO or TRTO outside JAA Member States - Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.330 & 1.345 - Arrangements for the flight instructor rating (FI(H)) skill test, proficiency check and oral theoretical knowledge examination - Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345 - Contents of the flight instructor rating (FI(H)) skill test, oral theoretical knowledge examination and proficiency check - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340 - Flight instructor rating (helicopter) (FI(H)) course - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.365 – Course for the type rating instructor (helicopter) for, as applicable, single or multi-pilot helicopters certificated for VFR or IFR operation (TRI(H)) - Appendix 1 to JAR FCL 2.395 - Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) 4 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.015 Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Adjustment to para (b); adjustment to para (c) - this has been split into two different sub-paragraphs (b) Licences issued by non-JAA States (1) A licence issued by a non-JAA State may be rendered valid at the discretion of the Authority of a JAA Member State for use on aircraft registered in that JAA Member State in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.015. Holders of a professional pilot’s licence wishing to exercise professional privileges, shall comply with the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to JAR– FCL 2.015. (2) Validation of a professional pilot’s licence and a private pilot licence with instrument rating shall not exceed one year from the date of validation, provided that the basic licence remains valid. Any further validation for use on aircraft registered in any JAA Member State is subject to agreement by the JAA Member States and to any conditions seen fit within the JAA. The user of a licence validated by a JAA Member State shall comply with the requirements stated in JAR– FCL. (3) The requirements stated in (1) and (2) above shall not apply where aircraft registered in a JAA Member State are leased to an operator in a non-JAA State, provided that the State of the operator has accepted for the period of lease the responsibility for the technical and/or operational supervision in accordance with JAR–OPS 3.165. The licences of the flight crews of the non-JAA State operator may be validated at the discretion of the Authority of the JAA Member State concerned, provided that the privileges of the flight crew licence validation are restricted for use during the lease period only on nominated aircraft in specified operations and not involving a JAA operator, directly or indirectly, through a wet lease or other commercial arrangement. (c) Conversion of a licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State. (1) A professional licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State may be converted to a JAR– FCL licence provided that an arrangement exists between the JAA Member State and the non-JAA State. This arrangement shall be established on the basis of reciprocity of licence acceptance and shall ensure that an equivalent level of safety exists between the training and testing requirements of the JAA Member State and the non-JAA State. Any 5 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) arrangement entered into will be reviewed periodically, as agreed by the non-JAA State and the JAA Member State. A licence converted according to such an arrangement shall have an entry indicating the non-JAA State upon which the conversion is based. Other Member States shall not be obliged to accept any such licence. (2) A private pilot licence issued by a non-JAA Member State may be converted to a JAR-FCL licence by complying with the requirements shown in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.015. 6 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.015 Minimum requirements for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States New paragraph 3 Private pilot licences with Instrument Rating 3 A private pilot licence with instrument rating issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA State may be validated subject to conditions by a JAA Member State in order to permit flights (other than flight instruction) in helicopters registered in that JAA Member State. To validate such licences, the holder shall: (a) complete, as a skill test, all sections of the type skill test in accordance with Appendix 1 and 3 to JAR-FCL 2.240; (b) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority in accordance with Subpart J, that a knowledge of Air Law and the Aeronautical Weather codes, subject number 050 10 03 01, as well as the Flight Planning & Performance, subject number 030 00 00 00, in accordance with AMC FCL 2.470(c) has been acquired; (c) demonstrate a knowledge of English in accordance with JAR–FCL 2.200; (d) hold a valid JAR–FCL Class 2 medical certificate; (e) comply with the experience requirements set out in column (2) of the following table: Licence held Total flying hours experience (1) (2) PPL(H)/IR > 100 hrs PIC instrument flight time 7 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.015 Conversion of a PPL(H) issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL PPL(H) See JAR-FCL 2.015(c)(2) New Appendix The minimum requirements for the conversion of a private pilot licence issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL licence are: (a) the applicant shall hold a licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex I; (b) the applicant shall hold at least a JAR-FCL Class 2 medical certificate; (c) the applicant shall comply with the requirements set out in the table below. National licence held Experience requirement Any further JAA requirements Current and valid national ICAO PPL 100 hours as pilot of helicopters (a) Pass a written examination in Air Law and Human Performance and Limitations (b) Pass the PPL skill test as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.130 and 2.135 and Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.135 8 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR-FCL 2.016 Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA Member State New paragraph (b) (a) An applicant for a JAR-FCL licence and IR, if applicable, already holding at least an equivalent licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA Member State shall meet all the requirements of JAR-FCL, except that the requirements of course duration, number of lessons and specific training hours may be reduced. The Authority may be guided as to the credits to be granted on the basis of a recommendation from an appropriate training organisation. (b) The holder of an ATPL(H) who meets the experience requirements of Appendix 1 to JARFCL 2.015 may be credited with the requirements to undergo approved training prior to undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and the skill test, if that licence contains a valid multi-pilot type rating for the helicopter to be used for the ATPL(H) skill test. 9 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR-FCL 2.030 Arrangements for testing Adjustments to paragraph (c) (c) Notification of examiners. (1) The Authority will maintain a list of all examiners it has authorised stating for which roles they are authorised. The list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within the JAA Member State. The Authority will determine by which means the examiners will be allocated to the skill test. notify each approved flying training organisation or registered facility of the examiners which it has designated for the conduct of skill tests for the issue of private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings at that flying training organisation or registered facility. (2) The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(H). 10 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.055 Training organisations and registered facilities Amendments to paragraph (a)(2) (a) (1) ... (2) Reserved. FTOs wishing to offer training for licences and associated ratings whose principal place of business and registered office is located outside the JAA Member States, will be granted approval by a JAA full Member Authority in respect of any such location if: (a) an arrangement has been agreed between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, providing for the participation of that Authority in the approval process and provide regulatory oversight of the FTO; or (b) i) if adequate jurisdiction and supervision by the approving Authority can be assured; ii) the relevant additional requirements of Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 2.055 are satisfied. 11 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1a to JAR–FCL 2.055 Flying Training Organisations for pilot licences and ratings Amendment to paragraphs 11 and 15. 11 The FTO shall satisfy the Authority that an adequate number of qualified, competent staff are employed. For integrated courses, three persons on the staff shall be employed full time in the following positions: Head of Training (HT) Chief Flying Instructor (CFI) Chief Ground Instructor (CGI) For modular training courses, these positions may be combined and filled by one or two persons, full time or part time, depending upon the scope of training offered. At least one person on the staff must be full time. In FTOs, employing 5 or less instructors, the positions of HT and CFI or CFI and CGI may be combined. 15 (d) have completed on helicopters 1,000 hours pilot-in-command flight time and, in addition, of which a minimum of 750 500 hours shall be on helicopters flying instructional duties related to the flying courses conducted of which 200 hours may be instrument ground time. 12 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1b to JAR–FCL 2.055 Partial Training outside JAA Member States Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) The skill test for the instrument rating is to be taken in the JAA Member State of the Authority that approves the training. A FTO providing approved training for the instrument rating outside JAA Member States will need to make arrangements for the approved course to include acclimatisation flying in the JAA Member State of the approving Authority or any JAA Member State at the discretion of the Authority prior to any student taking the instrument rating skill test. 13 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1c to JAR–FCL 2.055 Additional Requirements for training in FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States (See JAR-FCL 2.055(a)(2) (See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.300) New Appendix APPROVAL PROCESS 1 FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States wishing to train for JAR-FCL licences and associated ratings shall apply for approval of such courses to a National Authority of any full JAA Member State. Approval will be subject to: (a) The FTO shall meet the requirements of Appendix 1(a) to JAR-FCL 2.055 and any additional requirements of this Appendix; and (b) The Authority to which application has been made considers it possible to discharge its regulatory responsibilities for the approval process and an adequate level of supervision as required by the agreed JAA procedures. The cost and process of approval and supervision shall not put undue burden on the resources of the Authority; and (c) The approving JAA Authority can ensure adequate jurisdiction over the FTO during the approval process and the conduct of subsequent training courses. The national authority of the non-JAA State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office may assist the Authority of a JAA Member State in the approval process and provide oversight of training courses subject to an arrangement being agreed between the JAA and that non-JAA State; and (d) The Authority conducting the inspection of FTO facilities and procedures for the initial issue of an approval shall include in its inspection team flight examiners or training inspectors from at least one other JAA National Authority, in addition to those of the approving Authority, as determined by the JAR-FCL Committee. JURISDICTION 2 In the context of approval of FTOs located outside JAA Member States, the term ‘adequate jurisdiction’ shall mean that the Authority of the approving State shall be able to: (a) conduct initial and routine inspections of the FTO located in that non-JAA State to ensure compliance with the requirements of JAR-FCL; and (b) conduct flight tests and other standardisation checks as deemed necessary by the approving Authority; and (c) discharge its legal responsibilities for the grant, variation, suspension or revocation of approvals in accordance with the applicable law of the approving JAA Member State. The approving Authority may, subject to an arrangement between the JAA and the non-JAA Authority of the State in which the FTO has its principal place of business and registered office, delegate responsibility for the provisions of paragraph 2(a) above to that non-JAA Authority. 14 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) FTOs TRAINING FOR PROFESSIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS 3 Provided that the requirements set out in this Appendix are met, approval may be granted if the approving Authority considers adequate supervision in accordance with JAA procedures to be possible. 4 Instruction may only be given under the direct control of the CFI(H) or nominated deputy holding a JAR-FCL licence or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to at least a JAR-FCL CPL/IR(H), who must be present while flight training is being undertaken. 5 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences who meet the requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.300 to instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and FI(H) shall not exceed 4:1. 6 The skill test for the Instrument Rating shall be conducted in the JAA Member State of the approving Authority. FTOs shall make arrangements for the approved course to include acclimatisation flying within the JAA Member State prior to any student taking the instrument rating skill test with an examiner authorised by the approving State. 7 The navigation progress test in Phase 2 of the ATP integrated course may be conducted by a locally-based flight instructor approved by the JAA approving Authority and not connected with the applicant’s training, provided that the instructor holds a JAR-FCL licence containing FI(H), as appropriate. On completion of the required training, the skill test for the CPL(H) of the ATP integrated course may be taken with a locally-based FE(H) nominated by the JAA approving Authority, provided that the examiner is authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL Subpart I and completely independent from the FTO except with the expressed consent in writing of the Authority. FTOs TRAINING FOR THE PPL(H) AND ASSOCIATED RATINGS ONLY 8 Provided that the requirements of this Appendix are met, approval to conduct courses for the JAR-FCL PPL(H) and associated ratings may be granted. 9 The management posts of Head of Training, Chief Flying Instructor and Chief Ground Instructor required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 2.055 may be combined, provided that the post holder holds at least a JAR-FCL CPL(H) or, until 30 June 2002, a national licence issued by the approving Authority which will convert to a JAR-FCL CPL(H). 10 The ratio of flight instructors holding non-JAA licences with FI(H) rating to those holding JAA licences shall not exceed 8:1. Flight instructors holding non-JAA licences shall be acceptable to the approving Authority and shall: (a) hold at least a CPL(H) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 required by the respective non-JAA State for the instruction to be given on aircraft registered in that State; (b) hold a flight instructor rating valid in that State; (c) have at least 200 hours of flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as a flight instructor; (d) have demonstrated knowledge of the relevant JAA requirements. 11 Training aeroplanes, airfields and navigation training routes used for PPL training shall be acceptable to the approving Authority. 15 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) 12 On completion of the required training the PPL(H) skill test may be taken by a locallybased flight examiner authorised by the approving Authority provided that the examiner has taken no part in the student’s flight instruction other than to conduct progress or safety checks during the course. 13 The Training and Operations Manuals required by Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 2.055 may, for FTOs conducting training for the PPL(H) and associated ratings only, be combined and contain only those references relevant to training for the PPL(H). FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS HOLDING JAR-FCL LICENCES 14 Flight Instructors holding JAR-FCL licences and ratings required to meet the provisions of paragraphs 5 and 10 above shall hold licences issued by a JAA Member State on the basis of meeting the requirements of JAR-FCL and not on the basis of a conversion of a non-JAA licence. Holders of licences converted on the basis of a non-JAA licence may be acceptable for this purpose if the FI(H) can demonstrate previous experience acceptable to the approving Authority of flight instruction for JAR-FCL licences. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 15 Training for theoretical knowledge may be given at an FTO conducting approved training outside the JAA Member States. The theoretical knowledge examinations for licence or rating issue shall be conducted by the approving Authority (see JAR-FCL 2.485). 16 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.065 State of licence issue Amendment to paragraph (a) (a) An applicant shall demonstrate the satisfactory completion of all requirements for licence issue to the Authority of the State under whose Authority the medical examination and assessment and the training and testing for the licence were carried out. Following licence issue, this State shall thereafter be referred to as the ‘State of licence issue’ (see JAR–FCL 2.010(c)). 17 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.075 Specifications for flight crew licences Adjustment to the cover page and page 3 STANDARD JAA LICENCE FORMAT Cover page Authority name and logo (English and national language) Requirements JOINT AVIATION AUTHORITIES (English only) Size of each page shall be not less than one eighth A4 FLIGHT CREW LICENCE (English and national language) Issued in accordance with ICAO and JAR-FCL standards (English and national language) 18 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Page 3 II Titles of licences, date of initial issue and country code IX Validity: This licence is to be re-issued not later than ................... The privileges of the licence shall be exercised only if the holder has a valid medical certificate for the required privilege. By the application of JAR-FCL 2.015(a)(1), the licence holder is entitled to may exercise licence privileges on aircraft registered in any other JAA Member States of the Joint Aviation Authorities subject to acceptance by that Member State. A document containing a photo shall be carried for the purposes of identification of the licence holder. XII Abbreviations used will be as used in JAR–FCL (e.g. PPL(H), ATPL(H), etc.) Standard date format is to be used, i.e. day / month / year in full (e.g., 21/01/1995) Re-issue is to be not later than 5 years from the date of initial issue shown in item II. This document is not specified, but a passport would suffice when outside the State of licence issue. Radiotelephony privileges: The holder of this licence has demonstrated competence to operate R/T equipment on board aircraft in English (other languages specified). XIII Remarks: e.g. valid only on helicopters registered in the State of licence issue. 19 All additional licensing information required by ICAO, EC Directive / Regulations or JARs to be entered here 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 2.125 Contents of an application form for registration of a facility for PPL instruction Adjustments to this Appendix, in row (g) of the table a Name and address under which the facility operates, i.e. Club, School, Group; b Name of Owner(s); c Date of intended commencement of operations; d Name, address and telephone number of FI’s and qualifications; e (i) Name and address of aerodrome, if applicable, from which training operations are to be conducted; (ii) Name of aerodrome operator; f List of helicopters to be used, including any means of synthetic flight instruction (if applicable) to be used by the facility, stating: Type of helicopters, Registration(s), Registered Owner(s), C of A Categories; g Type of training to be conducted by the facility: PPL(H) with associated single-engine type rating (see JAR–FCL 2.125(a)) Single engine type ratings (see JAR–FCL 2.125(a)) Night qualification others (specify) (see JAR–FCL 2.115) h Details of aircraft insurance held; i State whether your facility intends to operate full or part time; j Any additional information the Authority may require; k A declaration below by the applicant that the information provided in (a) to (j) above is correct and that training will be conducted in accordance with JAR–FCL 2. Date: Signature: 20 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.150 Privileges and conditions Amendment of paragraph (b) (b) Conditions. An applicant for a CPL(H) who has complied with the conditions specified in JAR–FCL 2.140, 2.145, 2.155 through 2.170, and 2.261(a) shall have fulfilled the requirements for the issue of at least a CPL(H) containing the type rating for the helicopter used on the skill test and, if an instrument rating course and test in accordance with JAR-FCL 2 Subpart E are included, the instrument rating. 21 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.155 Experience and crediting Amendment to paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) (a) Integrated courses (2) Crediting. From the 135 hours of flight time: (i) 15 hours may have been completed in aeroplanes and/or in touring motor gliders; and (ii) 10 hours may be instrument ground time. (2) Crediting. For details on crediting of flight time required in paragraph (a)(1), see Appendix 1 to JARFCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1) paragraph 4 or Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(2) paragraph 4. (b) Modular courses (2) Crediting. From the 185 hours of flight time: (i) 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and (ii)(i) 20 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(A); or (iii)(ii) 50 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(A) of the 185 hours may have been completed in aeroplanes; or (iv)(iii) 10 hours as pilot-in-command in touring motor gliders or gliders. 22 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1) ATP(H) integrated course Amendment of paragraph 4 and 7 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the course flight time requirement up to a credit of 40 hours flying experience or 45 hours if a night flying qualification has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the helicopter hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the required flight instruction (see JAR-FCL 2.165(a)(1) and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1) paragraph 13), to a maximum of : (a) up to 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction, or (b) if a helicopter night qualification has been obtained, up to 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the Authority, a FTO may designate certain dual exercises (see AMC FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1) phase 2 and 3) to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours. …… 7 The FTO shall ensure that before being admitted to the course the applicant has sufficient knowledge of Mathematics, and Physics and English to facilitate an understanding of the theoretical knowledge instruction content of the course. An applicant shall demonstrate the ability to use the English language The required level of English shall be in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR– FCL 2.200. 23 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(2) CPL(H) integrated course Amendment of paragraph 4 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as the holder of a private pilot licence (helicopter) (PPL(H)) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An ab-initio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the course flight time requirement up to a credit of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if a night flying qualification has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. 4 An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as the holder of a private pilot licence (helicopter) (PPL(H)) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. An abinitio entrant shall meet the student pilot requirements of JAR–FCL Subpart B. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the helicopter hours flown by the entrant prior to the course may be credited towards the required flight instruction (see JAR-FCL 2.165(a)(2) and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.160 & 2.165 (a)(2) paragraph 12), to a maximum of: (a) up to 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction, or (b) if a helicopter night qualification has been obtained, up to 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction. This credit for the hours flown shall be at the discretion of the FTO and entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the Authority a FTO may designate certain dual exercises (see AMC FCL 2.160 & 2.165 (a)(2) phase 2) to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours. 24 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(3) CPL(H) modular course Amendment to paragraphs 10 and 11 FLYING TRAINING 10 Applicants without an instrument rating shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, including 10 hours of instrument instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I or II or a flight simulator (See AMC FCL 2.160 and 2.165(a)(3)). Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) may be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in a helicopter. 11 (a) Applicants with a valid instrument rating shall be given at least 20 hours dual visual flight instruction on one type of helicopter. 11(b) Applicants without a night flying qualification helicopter shall be given additionally at least the 5 hours night flight instruction (see JAR–FCL 2.125(c) and Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.125). 25 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.180 Privileges and conditions Adjustment of text of paragraph (a) and split the paragraph in sub-paragraph (1) and (2) (a) Privileges. (1) Subject to the rating limitations imposed by use of a co-pilot during the skill test set out in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 2.210, and any other conditions specified in JARs, the privileges of a holder of an IR(H) are to pilot helicopters under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200 feet (60m). (2) Decision heights lower than 200 feet (60m) may be authorised by the Authority after further training and testing in accordance with JAR–OPS, AMC FCL 2.261(a) paragraph 6 and with Appendix 2 4 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295. JAR–FCL 2.295 section 5. 26 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.200 Use of English language Amendment to this paragraph. (a) An applicant for an IR(H) rating or validation shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.200. (b) The holder of an IR(H) shall have his PPL(H), CPL(H) or ATPL(H) extended with radiotelephony privileges in English. 27 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.200 IR(H) – Use of English language Adjustment to this Appendix USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1 An applicant for or the holder of the IR(H) shall have the ability to use the English language for the following purposes : in the following circumstances: (a) flight: radio telephony relevant to all phases of flight, including emergency situations. This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has passed an IR, TR or ATPL skill test or proficiency check during which the two-way radiotelephony communication is performed in English. (b) ground: all information relevant to the accomplishment of a flight, e.g. * be able to read and demonstrate an understanding of technical manuals written in English, e.g. an Operations Manual, a Helicopter Flight Manual, etc. * pre-flight planning, weather information collection, NOTAMs, ATC Flight Plan, etc. * use of all aeronautical en-route, departure and approach charts and associated documents written in English. This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has graduated from a IR or ATP course given in English or if he has passed the theoretical IR – or ATP-examination in English. (c) communication: be able to communicate conversate with other crew members in English during all phases of flight, including flight preparation This item is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant for or the holder of an IR(H) has graduated from a MCC-course given in English and is holding a certificate of satisfactory completion of that course in accordance with JAR-FCL 2.250 (a)(2) or if he has passed a multi-pilot skill test/proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295, during which the two-way radiotelephony communication and the communication with other crew members are performed in English. 2 Alternatively, the abovestated requirements may This shall be demonstrated by complying with one of the following alternative requirements: (a) having graduated from an IR(H) or ATP course given in English, or (b) having passed a specific examination given by or on behalf of the Authority after having undertaken a course of training enabling the applicant to meet all the objectives listed in 1(a), (b) and (c) above. 28 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.205 IR(H) – Modular flying training course Amendment to paragraphs 2 and 11 2 An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H) or a CPL(H), either licence to include the privileges to fly by night, issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. 2 An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H) with a night qualification issued in accordance with Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.125, or a CPL(H) issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. …… 11 The holder of a PPL(H) with a night qualification issued in accordance with Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.125, or a CPL(H) issued in accordance with ICAO may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 9 or 10 above reduced by 5 hours. 29 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR-FCL 2.240 Type Ratings – Requirements Additon of new paragraph (a) (6) (a) General (1) An applicant for a type rating for a multi-pilot type of helicopter shall comply with the requirements for type ratings set out in JAR– FCL 2.250, 2.261 and 2.262; and (2) An applicant for a type rating for a singlepilot type of helicopter shall comply with the requirements set out in JAR–FCL 2.255, 2.261 and 2.262. (3) The type rating course, including theoretical knowledge, shall be completed within the 6 months preceding the skill test. (4) The holder of an IR(H) valid for a single-engine helicopter type wishing to extend the IR(H) to a multiengine helicopter type shall satisfactorily complete a course comprising at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time in that type. (5) At the discretion of the Authority, a helicopter type rating may be issued to an applicant who meets the requirements for that rating of a nonJAA Member State, provided JAR-FCL 2.250 or 2.255 as applicable, are met. Such a rating will be restricted to helicopters registered in that non-JAA Member State, or operated by an operator of that non-JAA Member State. The restriction may be removed when the holder has completed at least 500 hours of flight as a pilot on the type and complied with the revalidation requirements of JAR-FCL 2.245. (6) A type rating contained in a licence issued by a non-JAA State may be transferred to a JAR-FCL licence, subject to the appropriate proficiency check, provided the applicant is in current flying practice and has not less than 500 hours flying experience on that type, provided JAR-FCL 2.250 or 2.255 as applicable, are met. 30 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.240 Type ratings – Requirements Addition of new paragraph (6) (a) General (6) A type rating contained in a licence issued by a non-JAA State may be transferred to a JAR-FCL licence, subject to the appropriate proficiency check, provided the applicant is in current flying practice and has not less than 500 hours flying experience on that type, provided JAR-FCL 2.250 or 2.255 as applicable, are met. 31 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295 Skill test and proficiency check for helicopter type rating an ATPL Modification of paragraph 3 3 The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. Any applicant failing not more than five items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item of the re-test/re-check including those items that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. 3 An applicant shall pass sections 1 through 5 of the skill test/proficiency check. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed. An applicant failing only one section shall take the failed section again. Failure in any items of the re-test/re-check and failure in any other items already passed, will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. All sections of the skill test/proficiency check shall be completed within six months. If an additional authorisation for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60m/200ft (cat II/III) is sought, the applicant shall pass the items in Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.240 on the relevant type. 32 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 Contents of the ATPL/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on multi-pilot helicopters Adjustment of paragraphs 2 and to the skill test/proficiency check form 1 The following symbols mean: P = Trained as Pilot-in-command or Co-pilot and as Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Not Flying (PNF) for the issue of a type rating as applicable. X = Flight simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available, otherwise a helicopter shall be used except where indicated. 2 The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: FS = Flight Simulator FTD = Flight Training Device HEL = Helicopter OTD = Other Training Devices 3.1 The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an IR for MPH, or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. 3.2 Instrument flight procedures ( Sections 4 to 5) shall be performed only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an IR or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. 3.3 For the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(H), all starred items shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC. 4 Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test/ proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise. 5 A flight simulator shall be used for practical training if the flight simulator forms part of an approved type-rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (a) the qualification of the flight simulator as set out in JAR–STD; (b) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner; (c) the amount of line-orientated flight simulator training provided on the course; (d) the qualifications and previous line operating experience of the pilot under training; and (e) the amount of supervised line flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating. 33 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 (continued) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures (Including MCC) Trained in : OTD FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed FS Chkd. Examiner’s in initials when test/check passed HEL FS, HEL P M SECTION 1 1 Pre-flight preparations and checks 1.1 Helicopter exterior visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection. 1.2 Cockpit inspection 1.3 Starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies 1.4 Taxiing /air taxiing in compliance with air traffic control instructions or on instructions of an instructor 1.5 Pre take off procedures and checks P P P P ----> M ----> ----> M P ----> M ----> ----> M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1 Take-offs (various profiles ) P ----> 2.2 Cross wind take-off (if practicable) P ----> 2.3 Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P ----> 2.4 Take-offs with simulated engine failure: 2.4.1 shortly before reaching TDP, or DPATO P ----> M 2.4.2 shortly after reaching TDP, or DPATO P* ----> * M* -–> SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1 Turns P 3.2 Landings (various profiles) P -–> 3.2.1 Landing following simulated engine failure before LDP or DPBL P -–> M 3.2.2 Landing following simulated engine failure after LDP or DPBL P -–> M 3.3 Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures: M (A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.3.1–3.3.17 inclusive) 3.3.1 Engine P P -----> -----> 3.3.2 Air conditioning (heating, ventilation) P P -----> -----> 3.3.3 Pitot/static system P P -----> -----> 3.3.4 Fuel System P P -----> -----> 3.3.5 Electrical system P P -----> -----> 3.3.6 Hydraulic system P P -----> -----> 3.3.7 Flight control and Trim-system P P -----> -----> 3.3.8 Anti- and de-icing system P P -----> -----> 34 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 (continued) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures (Including MCC) Trained in : Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed OTD FTD FS HEL 3.3.9 Autopilot/Flight director P P -----> -----> 3.3.10 Stability augmentation devices P P -----> -----> 3.3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P P -----> -----> 3.3.12 Area Navigation System P P -----> -----> 3.3.13 Landing gear system P P -----> -----> 3.3.14 Tail rotor control failure (if applicable) P -----> 3.3.15 Tail rotor loss (if applicable) P An Chkd. in Examiner’s initials when test/check passed FS, HEL aircraft may not be used for this exercise 3.3.16 Auxiliary power unit P P -----> -----> 3.3.17 Radio, navigation equipment, instruments flight management system P P -----> -----> 3.4 Abnormal and emergency procedures M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.4.1 to 3.5 inclusive 3.4.1 Fire drills (including evacuation if applicable) P -----> -----> 3.4.2 Smoke control and removal P -----> -----> 3.4.3 Engine failures, shut down and restart at a safe height P -----> -----> 3.4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P -----> -----> 3.4.5 Autorotation descent P* ----->* 3.4.6 Autorotative landing or power recovery P -----> 3.4.7 Incapacitation of crew member P -----> -----> 3.4.8 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate Flight Manual P -----> -----> 3.5 Turns with 30 degrees bank, 180 degrees to 360 degrees left and right, by sole reference to instruments P P -----> P* ----->* M* SECTION 4 4 Instrument flight procedures (To be performed in IMC or simulated IMC). 4.1 Instrument take-off : transition to instrument flight is required as soon possible after becoming airborne 4.2 Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P* ------>* ----->* 4.3 Holding procedures P* ------>* ----->* 35 M* 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 (continued) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures (Including MCC) Trained in : OTD FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed FS Chkd. Examiner’s in initials when test/check passed HEL FS, HEL M* 4.4 ILS-approaches down to CAT 1 decision height 4.4.1 manually, without flight director P* ----->* 4.4.2 manually, with flight director P* ----->* 4.4.3 with coupled autopilot P* ----->* 4.4.4 manually, with one engine simulated inoperative. (Engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing the outer marker (OM) until touchdown, or through the complete missed approach procedure) P* ----->* M* 4.5 Non-precision approach down to the minimum descent altitude MDA/H P* ----->* M* 4.6 Circling approach under following conditions: a) Approach to the authorised minimum circling altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: b) Circling approach to another runway at least 90 degrees off centreline from final approach used in item a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. Remark: if a) and b) are not possible due to ATC reasons a simulated low visibility circuit (visibility less than 800 m) may be performed. P* ----->* 4.7 Missed Approach Procedures 4.7.1 Go-around with all engines operating on reaching decision height/MDA P* ----->* 4.7.2 Other missed approach procedures P* ----->* 4.7.3 Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative on reaching decision height/MDA P* ----->* M* 4.7.4 IMC autorotation with power recovery P* ----->* M* SECTION 5 5 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) Following manoeuvres and procedures are to be trained for the purpose of type rating extension to instrument approach down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures all equipment necessary for type certification of instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) has to shall be used 36 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures (Including MCC) Trained in : OTD FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed Chkd. Examiner’s in initials when test/check passed FS HEL FS, HEL 5.1 Aborted take off ; at take off weather minima P* ----->* M* 5.2 ILS approach down to a decision height applied for using flight guidance system. Standard procedures of crew co-ordination (task sharing, calling procedures, mutual surveillance, information and support ) are to be observed particularly P* ---->* M* 5.3 Go-around After approaches as indicated in 5.2. on reaching decision height. The transition training also has to shall include comprise go-around due to (simulated) insufficient runway visual range, wind shear, aircraft deviation more than tolerable for a successful approach, and ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching decision height, furthermore, go-around with airborne equipment failure. Special attention has to shall be given to go-around procedures with precalculated manual or automatic go-around attitude guidance P* ----->* M* 5.4 Landing(s) With visual reference established at decision height following an instrument approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing has to shall be performed. P* ----->* M* P -----> SECTION 6 5 65 Use of optional equipment 37 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 2.240 Contents of the type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check for single-engine and multiengine single-pilot helicopters Adjustment of the items 1.1 and 1.2 Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures Trained in : FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed FS Chkd. Examiner’s in initials when check passed HEL FS, HEL P M SECTION 1 1 Pre-flight Checks and Preparations 1.1 Helicopter exterior visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection. 1.2 Cockpit inspection 1.3 Prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies 1.4 Taxiing/air taxiing in compliance with air traffic control instructions or on instructions of an instructor 1.5 Pre take off procedures P M P M P M P M SECTION 2 2 Take-offs 2.1 Take-offs (various profiles) P 2.2 Cross wind take-off (if practicable) P 2.3 Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P 2.4 Take-offs with simulated. engine failure: 2.4.1 shortly before reaching TDP, or DPATO P 2.4.2 shortly after reaching TDP, or DPATO P* M M * M* SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1 Climbing and descending turns to specified headings P M 3.2 Turns with 30 degrees bank, 180 degrees to 360 degrees left and right, by sole reference to instruments if equipped P M SECTION 4 4 Autorotations 4.1 Descent in autorotations P* 4.2 Autorotation landing or power recovery P M * M* SECTION 5 5 Landings 5.1 Landings P M 5.1.1 Landing following simulated engine failure before LDP or DPBL P M 5.1.2 Landing following simulated engine failure after LDP or DPBL P M 38 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures Trained in : FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed FS HEL Chkd. in Examiner’s initials when check passed FS, HEL SECTION 6 6 Instrument flight procedures to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC 6.1 Instrument take-off: transition to instrument flight is required immediately after being established in the climb. Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions 6.2 Holding procedures 6.3 ILS-approaches down to CAT 1 decision height 6.3.1 Manually, without flight director P* * 6.3.2 Manually, with flight director P* * P* P* * * M* * 6.3.3 With coupled autopilot P* * 6.4 NDB or VOR/LOC-approach down to the minimum descent altitude /MDA/H P* * 6.5 Circling approach under following conditions: a) Approach to the authorised minimum circling altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities; followed by: b) Circling approach to another runway at least 90 degrees off centreline from final approach used in item a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. P* * M* M* Remark: if a) and b) are not possible due to ATC reasons a simulated low visibility circuit (visibility less than 800 m) may be performed. 6.6 Missed Approach Procedures 6.6.1 Go-around after an ILS approach on reaching decision height P* * 6.6.2 Other missed approach procedures P* * 6.6.3 Go around with one engine inoperative P* * M* 6.7 IMC autorotation and power recovery P* * M* 39 M* 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures Trained in: FTD Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Instructor’s initials when training completed FS HEL Chkd. in Examiner’s initials when check passed FS, HEL SECTION 7 7 Normal and abnormal operations of following systems and procedures: M (A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 7.1 – 7.16 inclusive) 7.1 Engine P 7.2 Air-conditioning (heatings, ventilation) P 7.3 Pitot/static system P 7.4 Fuel system P 7.5 Electrical system P 7.6 Hydraulic system P 7.7 Flight control and Trim-system P 7.8 Anti- and de-icing system P 7.9 Autopilot/Flight director P 7.10 Stability augmentation devices P 7.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P 7.12 Area Navigation System P 7.13 Landing gear system P 7.14 Tail rotor control failure (if applicable) 7.15 Tail rotor loss (if applicable) 7.16 Radio, navigation equipment, instruments, flight management system P P X P SECTION 8 8 Abnormal and emergency procedures 8.1 Fire drills (including evacuation if applicable) 8.2 Smoke control and removal P M M 8.3 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate Flight Manual P M 8.4 Engine failure, shut down and restart at safe altitude P SECTION 9 9 Use of optional equipment P 40 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 4 to JAR–FCL 2.240 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) (See AMC FCL 2.261(a)) New appendix A. Theoretical knowledge instruction (additional) 1 Special requirements for extension of a type rating for Instrument Approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) 2 B. Equipment, procedures and limitations Manoeuvres and Procedures (additional) Practical Training Manoeuvres / Procedures (including MCC) Trained in: FTD Instructor’s initials when training completed FS HEL Skill Test/ Proficiency Check Chkd. in Examiner’s initials when test/check passed FS, HEL Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) Following manoeuvres and procedures are to be trained for the purpose of type rating extension to instrument approach down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures all equipment necessary for type certification of instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used 1 Aborted take-off: at take-off weather minima P* * M* 2 ILS approach down to a decision height applied for using flight guidance system. Standard procedures of crew co-ordination (task sharing, calling procedures, mutual surveillance, information and support) are to be observed particularly P* * M* 3 Go-around After approaches as indicated in 2 on reaching decision height. The transition training also shall include go-around due to (simulated) insufficient runway visual range, wind shear, aircraft deviation more than tolerable for a successful approach, and ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching decision height, furthermore, go-around with airborne equipment failure. Special attention shall be given to go-around procedures with pre-calculated manual or automatic go-around attitude guidance P* * M* 4 Landing(s) With visual reference established at decision height following an instrument approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. P* * M* 41 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.250 Type rating, multi-pilot – Conditions New paragraph (b), old paragraph (b) is now paragraph (c) (b) Applicants having : (1) either a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in accordance with JARFCL 1 and experience of more than 100 hours as pilot of a multi-pilot aeroplanes; or (2) experience of more than 500 hours as pilot as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, shall be considered to meet the requirement of MCC. (c) (b) The level of knowledge……….. 42 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.261 Type ratings – Knowledge and flight instruction Amendment of paragraph (d) (d) Multi-crew co-operation training (see also JAR–FCL 2.250(a)(2)) (1) The course is intended to provide MCC training in two circumstances: (i) for students attending an ATP integrated course in accordance with the aim of that course (see Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1)) (ii) for CPL/IR PPL(H) and CPL(H) holders who have not graduated from an ATP integrated course but who wish to obtain an initial type rating on multi-pilot helicopters (see JAR–FCL 2.250(a)(2)). 43 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.261(a) Theoretical knowledge instruction requirements for skill test/proficiency checking for type ratings Amendment of paragraph 2 with the addition of part of AMC FCL 2.261(a) 2 The theoretical knowledge instruction shall cover the syllabus in AMC FCL 2.261(a), as appropriate to the helicopter type concerned with the following contents: (a) Helicopter structure, transmissions, rotor and equipment, normal and abnormal operation of systems. (b) Dimensions Engine including aux. power unit, rotors and transmissions Fuel system Air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic system Landing gear Flight controls, stability augmentation and autopilot systems Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment Limitations (c) General limitations, according to the helicopter flight manual Minimum equipment list Performance, flight planning and monitoring (d) Performance Flight planning Load and balance and servicing - Load and balance Servicing on ground (e) Emergency procedures (f) Special requirements for helicopters with electronic flight instrument systems (EFIS) (g) Optional equipment 44 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.261(a) Syllabus of theoretical instruction for type ratings for single and multi-engine helicopters The first 8 paragraphs have been deleted from this AMC and have been added to Appendix 1 to JARFCL 2.261(a). The rest of this AMC remains unchanged. CONTENTS 1 Helicopter structure, transmissions, rotor and equipment, normal and abnormal operation of systems. 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 Dimensions Engine including aux. power unit, rotors and transmissions Fuel system Air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic system Landing gear Flight controls, stab-and autopilot systems Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment 2 Limitations 2.1 2.2 General limitations, according to the helicopter flight manual Minimum equipment list 3 Performance, flight planning and monitoring 3.1 3.2 Performance Flight planning 4 Load and balance and servicing 4.1 4.2 Load and balance Servicing on ground 5 Emergency procedures 6 Special requirements for extension of a type rating for Instrument Approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) 6.1 Equipment, procedures and limitations 7 Special requirements for helicopters with electronic flight instrument systems (EFIS) 8 Optional equipment 45 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (Helicopter) (See JAR-FCL 2.261(d)) (See AMC FCL 2.261(d)) New Appendix with text coming from AMC FCL 2.261(d) 1 The aim of the course is to enable pilots to become proficient in multi-crew cooperation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot helicopters under IFR and VFR. a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training should be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 3 The theoretical knowledge syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.261(d). An approved MCC theoretical knowledge course shall comprise not less than 25 hours FLYING TRAINING 4 The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.261(d) CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION 5 On completion of the course, the applicant may be issued with a certificate of satisfactory completion of the course. CROSS-CREDITING 6 A holder of a certificate of completion of MCC training on aeroplanes shall be exempted from the requirement to complete the theoretical knowledge syllabus as set out in AMC FCL 2.261(d). 46 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (helicopter) This AMC is partly moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(d). IEM FCL 2.261(d) has been included in this AMC 1 The aim of the course is to enable pilots to become proficient in multi-crew co-operation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot helicopters under IFR and VFR. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training should be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION TRAINING 31 The objectives of MCC training are optimum decision making, communication, division of tasks, use of checklists, mutual supervision, teamwork, and support throughout all phases of flight under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions. The training emphasises the development of nontechnical skills applicable to working in a multi-crew environment. The training should focus on teaching students the basics on the functioning of crew members 42 as teams in a multi-crew environment, not simply as a collection of technically competent individuals. Furthermore, the course should provide students with opportunities to practice the skills that are necessary to be effective team leaders and members. This requires training exercises which include students as crew members in the PF and PNF roles. Students should be made familiar with inter-personal interfaces and how to make best use of 53 crew co-operation techniques and their personal and leadership styles in a way that fosters crew effectiveness. Students should be made aware that their behaviour during normal circumstances can have a powerful impact on crew functioning during high workload and stressful situations. Research studies strongly suggest that behavioural changes in any environment cannot be 64 accomplished in a short period even if the training is very well designed. Trainees need time, awareness, practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement to learn lessons that will endure. In order to be effective, multi-crew co-operation training should be accomplished in several phases spread over a period. 7 In principle, the purpose of crew co-ordination procedures is to achieve the following aims. a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. 47 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.261(d) (continued) BASIC MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION COURSE 85 The contents of the basic MCC course should cover theoretical knowledge training, practice and feedback in: a. interfaces – b. leadership/‘followership’ and authority – – – – – – – c. listening conflict resolution mediating critique (pre-flight analyses and planning, ongoing-review, postflight) team building effective and clear communication during flight – – – – – e. managerial and supervisory skills assertiveness barriers cultural influence PF and PNF roles professionalism team responsibility personality, attitude and motivation – – – – – d. examples of Software, Hardware, Environment and Liveware mismatches in practice listening feedback standard phraseologies assertiveness participation crew co-ordination procedures – – – flight techniques and cockpit procedures standard phraseologies discipline 96 The use of checklists is of special importance for an orderly and safe conduct of the flights. Different philosophies have been developed for the use of checklists. Whichever philosophy is used depends on the complexity of the aircraft concerned, the situation presented, the flight crew composition and their operating experience and the operator's procedures as laid down in the Flight Operations Manual. 107 Mutual supervision, information and support. a. Any action in handling the aircraft should be performed by mutual supervision. The pilot responsible for the specific action or task (PF or PNF) should be advised when substantial deviations (flight path, aircraft configuration etc.) are observed. b. Call-out procedures are essential, especially during take-off and approach, to indicate progress of the flight, systems status etc. c. Operation of aircraft systems, setting of radios and navigation equipment etc. should not be performed without demand by the PF or without information to the PF and his confirmation. 48 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) COURSE OBJECTIVE 118 The contents of paragraphs 3 and 4 can best be practised by performing the exercises in IEM FCL 2.261(d). 129 Practice and feedback of MCC with regard to the L-L (liveware-liveware) interface should also make provision for students for self and peer critique in order to improve communication, decision making and leadership skills. This phase is best accomplished through the use of flight simulators and video equipment. Video feedback is particularly effective because it allows participants to view themselves from a third-person perspective; this promotes acceptance of one's weak areas which encourages attitude and behavioural changes. EXERCISES 10 The instruction should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment and cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation, including documentation; computation of take off performance data; radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; b. before take-off checks, including powerplant checks; take-off briefing by PF; c. take-offs and landings to and from : – standard surface heliport – pinpoint surface heliport – elevated site – helideck task of PF and PNF; call outs; d. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass ; engine failure before and after Take off Decision Point (TDP); engine failure before and after Defined Point After Take-off (DPATO); e. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems; use of checklists; f. Emergency procedures to include engines (shut down and restart at a safe height) failure, fire, smoke control and removal; auto pilot/flight director failure, autorotation descent, tail rotor control failure (if applicable), tail rotor loss, hydraulic failure, SAS failure; wind and turbulence effect on raised structures, or due to heliport environment; emergency descent; incapacitation of a flight crew member; g. early recognition of specific helicopter hazards, e.g. ground resonance, dynamic and static rollover, blade stall, vortex ring/setting with power, settling with power depending on type of operation; h. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and autopilot; one engine simulated inoperative approaches; autopilot inoperative approaches; non precision and circling approaches; radar approaches on fixed or moving platforms; call out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; i. normal go-arounds; go arounds with one engine simulated inoperative and with autopilot or stabiliser inoperative; rejected landing; support of the PF by the PNF; j. normal and crosswind landings with one simulated engine failure before and after landing decision point (LDP) and one simulated engine failure before defined point before landing (DPBL) and with autopilot or Stability Augmentation System (SAS) inoperative; transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. 49 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.261(d) (continued) Where MCC training is combined for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot helicopter, the exercises (a) and (b) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. REINFORCEMENT 1311 No matter how effective the classroom curriculum, interpersonal drills, LOFT exercises, and feedback techniques are, a single exposure during the multi-crew co-operation course for the initial issue of a multi-pilot helicopter type rating will be insufficient. The attitudes and influences which contribute to ineffective crew co-ordination are ubiquitous and may develop over a pilot's lifetime. Thus it will be necessary that the training of non-technical skills will be an integral part of all recurrent training for revalidation of a multi-pilot helicopter type rating as well as of the training for the issue of further multi-pilot type ratings. 50 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) IEM FCL 2.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (helicopter) See JAR–FCL 2.261(d) This IEM have been incorporated into AMC FCL 2.261(d) 1 Helicopter operations to and from a standard surface heliport are similar to aeroplane operations at an aerodrome, even if the helicopter rejected take-off is performed when already airborne. It is not exactly the same when specific heliports are used ( e.g. elevated sites, helidecks, pinpoint landings in confined areas). The MCC training should therefore reflect this difference. Training should combine alternate usage of surface and elevated sites, or surface and helidecks, etc. 2 The use of flight simulators is highly recommended as they permit a much better training than helicopters, particularly when emergency procedures are practised. 3 Multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is set out in AMC FCL 2.261(d). This IEM gives guidelines for the MCC training exercises that may be used. The instruction should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment and cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation, including documentation; computation of take off performance data; radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; b. before take-off checks, including powerplant checks; take-off briefing by PF; c. take-offs and landings to and from : – standard surface heliport – pinpoint surface heliport – elevated site – helideck task of PF and PNF; call outs; d. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass ; engine failure before and after Take off Decision Point (TDP); engine failure before and after Defined Point After Take-off (DPATO); e. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems; use of checklists; f. Emergency procedures to include engines (shut down and restart at a safe height) failure, fire, smoke control and removal; auto pilot/flight director failure, autorotation descent, tail rotor control failure (if applicable), tail rotor loss, hydraulic failure, SAS failure; wind and turbulence effect on raised structures, or due to heliport environment; emergency descent; incapacitation of a flight crew member; g. early recognition of specific helicopter hazards, e.g. ground resonance, dynamic and static rollover, blade stall, vortex ring/setting with power, settling with power depending on type of operation; h. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and autopilot; one engine simulated inoperative approaches; autopilot inoperative approaches; non precision and circling approaches; radar approaches on fixed or moving platforms; call out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; i. normal go-arounds; go arounds with one engine simulated inoperative and with autopilot or stabiliser inoperative; rejected landing; support of the PF by the PNF; j. normal and crosswind landings with one simulated engine failure before and after landing decision point (LDP) and one simulated engine failure before defined point before landing (DPBL) and with autopilot or Stability Augmentation System (SAS) inoperative; transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. Where MCC training is combined for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot helicopter, the exercises (a) and (b) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. 51 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) 52 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.330 FI(H) – Privileges and requirements Amendment to paragraph (c) (c) night flying, provided a helicopter night qualification is held, the ability to instruct at night has been demonstrated to a FI(H) authorised to conduct FI(H) training in accordance with JARFCL 2.330 (f) and the night currency requirement of JAR-FCL 2.026 is satisfied. 53 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340 Flight Instructor rating (Helicopter) (FI(H)) course See JAR-FCL 2.340 See AMC FCL 2.340 New appendix coming from AMC FCL 2.340 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1 The aim of the FI(H) course is to train helicopter licence holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a FI(H) rating and, for that purpose, to: a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises; c. ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard; and d. teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at the PPL level. 2 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the Ground and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the PPL(H) course syllabus and should already be known by the applicant. 3 The FI(H) course shall give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine and theoretical knowledge environment interaction. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 4 During the course, the applicants shall be made aware of their own attitudes to the importance of flight safety. Improving safety awareness shall be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a flight instructor’s task. 5 On successful completion of the course and final test the applicant may be issued with a FI(H) rating. TEACHING AND LEARNING 6 The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.340 part 1. An approved FI(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise not less than 125 hours including progress tests. Pilots holding or having held a FI(A) rating are credited with 75 hours towards the 125 hours of the Teaching and Learning part 1 of the FI(H) course. FLYING TRAINING 7 The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.340 part 2. An approved FI(H) course shall comprise not less than 30 hours of flight instruction. SKILL TEST 8 On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 2.330 & 2.345. 54 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.340 Flight instructor rating (helicopter) (FI(H)) course See JAR–FCL 2.340 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Amendment to the Course Objective. COURSE OBJECTIVE The aim of this course is to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction in order to instruct for a PPL(H), a CPL(H), a type rating and, if applicable, a night qualification. 1 The course should be designed for the applicant to be given adequate training in ground and flying instructional techniques based upon established teaching methods. 2 On successful completion of the course and final test the applicant may be issued with a FI(H) rating permitting the holder to give flight training appropriate to the issue of a PPL(H) or a CPL(H). 3 The FI(H) course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine and theoretical knowledge environment interaction. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 4 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the Ground and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the PPL(H) course syllabus and should already be known by the applicant. Therefore the purpose of the course is to: a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises; c. ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard; and d. level. teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at the PPL 5 During the course, the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the importance of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a flight instructor’s task and to achieve this the course curriculum, in terms of goals and objectives, should comprise at least the following areas: 55 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.340 (continued) PART 1 TEACHING AND LEARNING Item No. 1 THE LEARNING PROCESS Motivation Perception and understanding Memory and its application Habits and transfer Obstacles to learning Incentives to learning Learning methods Rates of learning 2 THE TEACHING PROCESS Elements of effective teaching Planning of instructional activity Teaching methods Teaching from the ‘known’ to the ‘unknown’ Use of ‘lesson plans’ 3 TRAINING PHILOSOPHIES Value of a structured (approved) course of training Importance of a planned syllabus Integration of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction 4 5 TECHNIQUES OF APPLIED INSTRUCTION a. Theoretical knowledge – Classroom instruction techniques Use of training aids Group lectures Individual briefings Student participation/discussion b. FLIGHT – Airborne instruction techniques The flight/cockpit environment Techniques of applied instruction Post-flight and inflight judgement and decision making STUDENT EVALUATION AND TESTING a. Assessment of student performance The function of progress tests Recall of knowledge Translation of knowledge into understanding Development of understanding into actions The need to evaluate rate of progress b. Analysis of student errors 56 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.340 (continued) Establish the reason for errors Tackle major faults first, minor faults second Avoidance of over criticism The need for clear concise communication 6 TRAINING PROGRAMME DEVELOPMENT Lesson planning Preparation Explanation and demonstration Student participation and practice Evaluation 7 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS RELEVANT TO FLIGHT INSTRUCTION Physiological factors Psychological factors Human information processing Behavioural attitudes Development of judgement and decision making 8 ALL HELICOPTER SPECIFIC HAZARDS INVOLVED IN SIMULATING SYSTEMS FAILURES AND MALFUNCTIONS IN THE HELICOPTER DURING FLIGHT Selection of a safe altitude Importance of ‘touch drills’ Situational awareness Adherence to correct procedures 9 TRAINING ADMINISTRATION Flight/theoretical knowledge instruction records Pilot’s personal flying log book The flight/ground curriculum Study material Official forms Aircraft Flight/Owner’s Manuals/Pilot’s Operating Handbooks Flight authorisation papers Aircraft documents The private pilot’s licence regulations 57 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.340 (continued) PART 2 SUGGESTED APPROXIMATE BREAKDOWN OF HOURS FOR THE THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SECTION OF THE FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR (HELICOPTER) COURSE. (The item numbers shown below relate to the item numbers of ‘Teaching and learning’ above.) Item No Tuition hours Practice hrs in class 1 2.00 - Allow for questions and short discussion periods. 0.30 2 4.00 - The tuition time should allow for questions and short discussion periods. 1.00 3 2.00 - The PPL training syllabus should be used as reference material. 0.30 4.a. 5.00 34 The time spent in practice under this item will involve the applicants refreshing their technical knowledge, and developing their classroom instruction techniques. It will also include discussion between applicants and advice on teaching from the supervising instructor. 4.b. 4.00 34 The time spent in practice will be mainly directed to the giving of pre-flight briefings. It will allow the applicants to develop their ability to give a practical and short briefing (10-15 minutes) to a student pilot. The briefing will outline in a logical sequence the flight lesson to be undertaken. 5.a. 2.00 - Emphasis should be placed on the validity of questions used in progress tests 1.00 5.b. 2.00 - Emphasis should be placed on the need to give encouragement to the student. 1.00 6 5.00 15 7 5.00 - Scenarios relevant to good judgement and decision making should be set and analysed 1.00 8 2.00 - Examples of hazards e.g. mast bumping, blade stall, should cover a broad range of helicopters and types of operation and not to be confined to the aircraft used on the course. 1.00 9 2.00 - General revision of relevant documents 1.00 35.00 83.00 TOTAL: Comment Progress tests The time spent in practice will be directed towards the planning of classroom lesson periods and the development of the applicants’ ability to construct lesson plans. 7.00 COURSE TOTAL: 125 HOURS (including progress tests) 58 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.340 (continued) PART 2 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION 1 The ground training consists of all instruction given on the ground for the purpose of the course by an appointed competent person, and includes classroom lectures, tutorials, long briefings and directed private study. AIR EXERCISES The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of PPL(H) but with additional items 21 designed to cover the needs of a flight instructor. The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a 32 broad instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the following interrelated factors: The applicant’s progress and ability The weather conditions affecting the flight The flight time available Instructional technique considerations The local operating environment Applicability of the exercises to the helicopter type It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar interrelated factors. They 43 should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises as necessary. GENERAL The briefing normally includes a statement of the objectives and a brief reference to principles 54 of flight only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be taught by the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include how the flight will be conducted with regard to who is to fly the helicopter and what airmanship, weather and flight safety aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which the constituent parts are to be taught. 65 The four basic components of the briefing will be: 1 2 3 4 The aim Principles of Flight (briefest reference only) The Air Exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom) Airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.) PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS The preparation of lesson plans is an essential pre-requisite of good instruction and the 76 student instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight lesson plans. GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS The student instructor should complete flight training in order to practise the principles of basic 87 instruction at the PPL(H) level. 59 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) 98 During this training, except when acting as a student pilot for mutual flights, the student instructor shall occupy the seat normally occupied by the Flight Instructor. It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the 109 following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate times during each flight. PART 3 FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS CONTENTS LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES 1 Familiarisation with the helicopter 2 Preparation for before and action after flight The rest of this AMC remains unchanged 60 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.355 FI(A) – Revalidation and renewal Adjustment to paragraph (a)(2) (a) For revalidation of a FI(A) rating the holder shall fulfil two of the following three requirements: (2) attended a FI refresher seminar (see AMC FCL 2.355(a)(2)), as approved by the Authority, within the validity period 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI rating; 61 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.365 Course for the type rating instructor (helicopter) for, as applicable, single or multi-pilot helicopters certificated for VFR or IFR operation (TRI(H)) See JAR-FCL 2.365 See AMC FCL 2.365 New Appendix with text coming from AMC FCL 2.365. 1 The aim of the TRI(H) course is to train helicopter licence holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a TRI(H) rating and, for that purpose, to: a. refresh and bring up to date technical knowledge; b. train the applicant to teach the theoretical knowledge subjects and air exercises; c. ensure that the applicant’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard. 2 All the subject detail contained in the Theoretical knowledge and Flight Training Syllabus shall already be known by the applicant. 3 The TRI(H) course shall give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the importance of human factors in the man-machine environment. Special attention shall be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of ability. 4 During the course, the applicants shall be made aware of their own attitudes to the importance of flight safety. Safety awareness shall be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a type rating instructor’s task. 5 On successful completion of the course and final test, the applicant may be issued with a type rating instructor (helicopter) rating permitting the holder to give theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction (and may include synthetic flight instruction) in order to instruct for any helicopter type rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JAR–FCL 2.365). TEACHING AND LEARNING 6 The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.365 part 1. An approved TRI(H) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings are credited for the TRI(H) Teaching and Learning part of the TRI(H) course : - FI(H), IRI(H); FI(A), CRI(A), TRI(A) and IRI(A). TECHNICAL TRAINING 7 The technical training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.365 part 2. FLIGHT TRAINING 8 The amount of flight training will vary depending on the complexity of the helicopter type. At least 5 hours flight training for a single pilot VFR certificated helicopter, and at least 10 hours for a multi pilot multi engine IFR certificated helicopter, shall be given by a TRI instructor designated by the Authority for this purpose. The flight training shall aim to ensure that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently and shall be related to 62 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) the type of helicopter on which the applicant wishes to instruct. The content of the training programme therefore shall only cover training exercises applicable to the helicopter type. 8 If a TRI rating for multi-pilot helicopters is sought particular attention shall be given to multi-crew cooperation. 10 If a TRI rating for revalidating of instrument ratings is sought then the applicant shall hold a valid instrument rating. 63 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.365 Course for the type rating instructor (helicopter) for, as applicable, single or multi-pilot helicopters certificated for VFR or IFR operation (TRI(H)) See JAR–FCL 2.365 See Appendix 1 to JAR- FCL 2.365 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.365, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Amendments to Part 2 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1. The course should be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge and flying instructional techniques based upon established teaching methods. The training programme should give details of all theoretical knowledge, flight and/or synthetic flight instructions. 2. The holder of a FI(H) rating is exempted from Part 1 (Teaching and Learning). COURSE ADMINISTRATION 2 Each applicant should have a written personal progress report maintained throughout the course and each applicant’s teaching abilities should be assessed as satisfactory by the TRI designated by the Authority for this purpose before the TRI rating is issued. PART 2 TECHNICAL TRAINING 1 The course should be related to the type of helicopter on which the applicant wishes to instruct. A training programme should give details of all theoretical knowledge instruction. 2 Identification and application of human factors (as set in the ATPL syllabus 040) related to multi-crew co-operation aspects of the training. 3 The content of the flight training exercises should be based on the content of the skill test and proficiency check as detailed in Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 and Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 2.240. The starred items are only required to be covered for a TRI wishing to instruct for the purpose of revalidation of Instrument Ratings. instruction programme should cover training exercises as applicable to the helicopter type. 4 The TRI rating applicant should be taught and made familiar with giving instruction from the seat normally occupied by the co-pilot. Training Exercises 5 Flight simulator a. b. c. d. e. f. g. use of checklist, setting of radios/navigation aids; starting engines; take-off checks; instrument take-off, transition to instruments after lift off; crosswind take-off; take-off with engine failure prior to TDP or DPATO or shortly after TDP or DPATO; steep turns; 64 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 h. i. j. JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) instrument approach to required minimum decision height or minimum descent height/altitude, autopilot off one engine simulated inoperative approach and landing or go around; rejected landing and go around; and crosswind landing. Category II and III operations, if applicable 6 a. b. c. d. precision approaches, automatic and flight director go-around caused by aircraft or ground equipment deficiencies; go around caused by weather conditions; go around at DH caused by offset position from centreline; and one of the CAT II/CAT III approaches must lead to a landing. Helicopter (not applicable for applicants for SFI (H) authorisation) 7 a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. familiarisation with controls during outside checks; use of checklist, setting of radios and navigation aids, starting engines; taxiing; take-off; engine failure during take-off shortly after TDP or DPAT, after reaching climb out attitude; other emergency procedures (if necessary); instrument approach to required minimum DH, manual one engine out during approach and landing or go around; one engine simulated inoperative go around from required minimum DH; and one engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing. 65 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.395 Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) See JAR–FCL 2.395 See AMC FCL 2.395 New Appendix with text coming from AMC FCL 2.395 1. The aim of this course is to train helicopter licence holders with at least 500 hours flight time under IFR of which at least 250 hours shall be on helicopters to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of an IRI(H) rating. The course shall be designed to give the applicant adequate training in theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction (and may include synthetic flight instruction) in order to instruct for the IR(H). TEACHING AND LEARNING 2. The syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 2.395. An approved IRI(H) Teaching and Learning course shall comprise not less than 25 hours based on the Teaching and Learning content of the FI(H) course as set out in AMC FCL 2.340. Pilots holding or having held one of the following ratings are credited for the IRI(H) Teaching and Learning part of the IRI(H) course : - Fi(H), TRI(H); FI(A), CRI(A) and TRI(A). Pilots holding an IRI(A) which meet the requirement set out in JAR-FCL 2.395(a) are credited of the course except for the “Long Briefing 2”, “Air Exercises 2”, and Skill Test. FLIGHT TRAINING 3. An approved IRI(H) course shall comprise not less than 10 hours of flight instruction on a helicopter type, flight simulator or FPNT II. SKILL TEST 4. On completion of the course, the applicant shall take the skill test in accordance with Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR FCL 2.330 & 2.345. 66 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) See JAR–FCL 2.395 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.395 Part of the text of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.395, therefore several paragraphs are deleted from this AMC. Amendments to Part 2 and to Part 3. 1 The course of training should comprise theoretical knowledge subjects, long briefings and air exercises. COURSE OBJECTIVE 2 The course should be designed for the applicant to be given adequate training to pass a skill test as set out in JAR–FCL 2.395(c). 3 On successful completion of the course, the applicant may be issued with an IRI(H) permitting the holder to give theoretical knowledge and flight training appropriate to the issue of an IR(H). COURSE OBJECTIVE The IRI(H) course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the 4 1 importance of human factors in the man-machine environment. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s levels of maturity and judgement including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education. 5 2 With the exception of the section on Teaching and Learning, all the subject detail contained in the Theoretical Knowledge and Flight Training Syllabus is complementary to the Instrument Rating Pilot Course Syllabus which should already be known by the applicant. Therefore the objective of the course is to: a. refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor; b. train pilots in accordance with the requirements of the modular instrument flying training course (Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.210); c. enable the applicant to develop the necessary instructional techniques required for teaching of instrument flying, radio navigation and instrument procedures to the level required for the issue of an instrument rating; and d. ensure that the student instrument rating instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard. 6 3 Some of the air exercise in Part Three – Flight Training Syllabus of this AMC may be combined in the same flight. 7 4 During the course, the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the important aspect of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental objective throughout the course. It will be of major importance for the course of training to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to an instructor’s task and to achieve this, the course curriculum, in terms of objectives should comprise at least the following areas. 8 The holder of a FI(H) rating is exempted from Part 1 (Teaching and Learning) from this course. PART 2 67 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS The theoretical subjects covered below should be used to develop the instructor’s teaching skills. The items selected should relate to the student’s background and should be applied to training for an IR(H). GENERAL SUBJECTS PHYSIOLOGICAL/PSYCHOLOGICAL FACTORS The Senses Spatial Disorientation Sensory Illusions Stress FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS Airspeed Indicator Altimeter Vertical Speed Indicator Attitude Indicator Heading Indicator Turn and Balance Slip Indicator/Turn Co-ordinator Magnetic Compass In relation to the above instruments the following items should be covered: Principles of Operation Errors and in-flight Serviceability Checks System Failures RADIO NAVIGATION AIDS Basic Radio Principles Use of VHF R/T Channels The Morse Code Basic Principles of Radio Aids VHF Omni Range (VOR) Ground and Helicopter Equipment Non Directional Beacons (NDB/ADF) VHF Direction Finding (VHF/DF) Ground and Helicopter Equipment Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR) Ground Equipment Primary Radar Secondary Surveillance Radar Helicopter Equipment Transponders Precision Approach System Other Navigational Systems (as applicable) in current Operational use Ground and Helicopter Equipment Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) Ground and Helicopter Equipment Marker Beacons Ground and Helicopter Equipment Pre-Flight Serviceability Checks Range, Accuracy and Limitations of Equipment FLIGHT PLANNING CONSIDERATIONS AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATIONS 68 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) The course of training should cover the items listed below, but the applicant’s aptitude and previous aviation experience should be taken into account when determining the amount of instructional time allocated. Although a number of items contained under this heading are complementary to those contained in the PPL/CPL/IR syllabi, the instructor should ensure that they have been covered during the applicant’s training and due allowance should be made for the time needed to revise these items as necessary. The Aeronautical Information Publication NOTAM Class 1 and 2 Aeronautical Information Circulars Information of an Operational Nature The Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services (RAC) Visual Flight Rules and Instrument Flight Rules Flight Plans and ATS Messages Use of Radar in Air Traffic Services Radio Failure Classification of Airspace Airspace Restrictions and Hazards Holding and Approach to Land Procedures Precision Approaches/Non Precision Approaches Radar Approach Procedures Missed Approach Procedures Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Conflict Hazards in Uncontrolled Airspace Communications Types of Services Extraction of AIP Data Relating to Radio Aids Charts Available En-route Departure and Arrival Instrument Approach and Landing Amendments, Corrections and Revision Service FLIGHT PLANNING GENERAL The Objectives of Flight Planning Factors Affecting Helicopter and Engine Performance Selection of Alternate(s) Obtaining Meteorological Information Services Available Met Briefing Telephone Communication Direct with Forecaster Telephone or Electronic Data Processing Actual Weather Reports (TAFs, METARs, SIGMET and ATIS) The Route Forecast The Operational Significance of the Meteorological Information Obtained (including Icing, Turbulence and Visibility) Altimeter Considerations Definitions of Transition Altitude Transition Level Flight Level QNH Regional QNH Standard Pressure Setting QFE Altimeter Setting Procedures Pre-Flight Altimeter Checks Take off and Climb En-Route Approach and Landing 69 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Missed Approach Terrain Clearance Selection of a Minimum Safe En-Route Altitude Instrument Flight Rules Preparation of Charts Choice of Routes and Flight Levels Compilation of Flight Plan/Log Sheet Log Sheet Entries Navigation Ground Aids to be used Frequencies/Codings Identification Radials and Bearings Tracks and Fixes Safety Altitude(s) Fuel Calculations ATC Frequencies (VHF) Tower, Approach, En-Route, Radar, FIS, ATIS, and weather reports Minimum Safe Sector Altitudes En-Route at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes Determination of Minimum Safe Descent Heights/Altitudes (Decision Heights) at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes THE PRIVILEGES OF THE INSTRUMENT RATING Outside Controlled Airspace Within Controlled Airspace Period of Validity and Renewal Procedures PART 3 FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS CONTENTS LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES 1 Instrument Flying (For revision as deemed necessary by the Course Instructor) 2 Instrument Flying (Advanced) 3 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of VOR 4 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of NDB 5 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of VHF/DF 6 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of DME 7 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of Transponders 8 Radio Navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of En-Route Radar Services 9 Pre-Flight and Aerodrome Departure and Arrival Procedures 10 Instrument Approach – precision approach aid to Specified Minima- Missed Approach Procedures 11 Instrument Approach – non-precision approach to Specified Minima- Missed Approach Procedures 12 Radio navigation (Applied Procedures) – use of GPS (to be developed) LONG BRIEFING 1 70 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic) Flight Instruments Physiological Considerations Instrument Appreciation Attitude Instrument Flight Pitch Indications Bank Indications Different Instrument Presentations Introduction to the Use of the Attitude Indicator Pitch Attitude Bank Attitude Maintenance of Heading and Balanced flight Instrument Limitations (inc System Failures) ATTITUDE, POWER & PERFORMANCE Attitude Instrument Flight Control Instruments Performance Instruments Effect of Changing Power and configuration Cross Checking the Instrument Indications Instrument Interpretation Direct and Indirect Indications (Performance Instruments) Instrument Lag Selective Radial Scan THE BASIC FLIGHT MANOEUVRES (FULL PANEL) Straight and Level Flight at Various Airspeeds and Helicopter Configurations Climbing Descending Standard Rate Turns Level, Climbing and Descending On to Pre-Selected Headings AIR EXERCISE 1 INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic) Physiological Sensations Instrument Appreciation Attitude Instrument Flight Pitch Attitude Bank Attitude Maintenance of Heading and Balanced Flight Attitude Instrument Flight Effect of Changing Power and configuration Cross Checking the Instruments Selective Radial Scan THE BASIC FLIGHT MANOEUVRES (FULL PANEL) Straight and Level Flight at various Airspeeds and Helicopter Configurations Climbing Descending Standard Rate Turns Level, Climbing and Descending on to Pre-Selected Headings Manoeuvring at minimum and maximum IMC speed LONG BRIEFING 2 INSTRUMENT FLYING (Advanced) 71 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Full Panel 30 degrees Level Turns Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries Transition to Instruments after Take-off Limited Panel Basic Flight Manoeuvres Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries AIR EXERCISE 2 Full Panel 30 degrees Level Turns Unusual Attitudes – Recoveries Identification and Recovery from Low Pitch Steep Bank and High Pitch Steep Bank Attitudes ( at low and high power settings ) Limited Panel Repeat of the Above Exercises LONG BRIEFING 3 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VOR (VHF OMNI RANGE) Availability of VOR Stations En-Route Station Frequencies and Identification Coding Signal Reception Range Effect of Altitude VOR Radials Method of Numbering Use of Omni Bearing Selector To/From Indicator Orientation Selecting Radials Intercepting a Pre-Selected Radial Assessment of Distance to Interception Effects of Wind Maintaining a Radial Tracking To/From a VOR Station Procedure Turns Station Passage Use of Two Stations for Obtaining a Fix Pre-Selecting Fixes Along a Track Assessment of Ground Speed and ETA Timing Holding Procedures Various Entries Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) AIR EXERCISE 3 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VOR (VHF OMNI RANGE) Station Selection and Identification Orientation Intercepting a Pre-Selected Radial R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison Maintaining a Radial Inbound Recognition of Station Passage Maintaining a Radial Outbound Procedure Turns Use of Two Stations to Obtain a Fix Along the Track Assessment of Ground Speed and ETA Timing Holding Procedures/Entries 72 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Entries Holding at a Pre-Selected Fix Holding at a VOR Station LONG BRIEFING 4 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF ADF (AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING EQUIPMENT) Availability of NDB (Non Directional Beacons) Facilities En-Route Location, Frequencies, Tuning (as applicable) and Identification Codes Signal Reception Range Static Interference Night Effect Station Interference Mountain Effect Coastal Refraction Orientation in Relation to a NDB Homing Intercepting a Pre-Selected Magnetic Bearing and Tracking Inbound Station Passage Tracking Outbound Time/Distance Checks Use of Two NDBs to Obtain a Fix or alternatively use of One NDB and One other Navaid Holding Procedures/Entries Various Approved Entries Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) AIR EXERCISE 4 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF ADF (AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING EQUIPMENT) Selecting, Tuning and Identifying a NDB ADF Orientation Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Homing Tracking Inbound Station Passage Tracking Outbound Time/Distance Checks Intercepting a Pre-Selected Magnetic Bearing Determining the Helicopter’s position from Two NDBs or alternatively from One NDB and One Other Navaid ADF Holding Procedures/Entries Various Approved Entries LONG BRIEFING 5 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VHF/DF (Very High Frequency/Direction Finding) Availability of VHF/DF Facilities En-Route Location, Frequencies, Station Call Signs and Hours of Operation Signal and Reception Range Effect of Altitude Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Obtaining and Using Types of Bearings, e.g. QTE, QDM, QDR Homing to a Station Effect of Wind 73 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Use of Two VHF/DF Stations to Obtain a Fix (or alternatively One VHF/DF Station and One other Navaid) Assessment of Groundspeed and ETA’s Timing AIR EXERCISE 5 RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES) USE OF VHF/DF (Very High Frequency/Direction Finding) Establishing Contact with a VHF/DF Station R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison Obtaining and Using a QDR and QTE Homing to a Station Effect of Wind Use of Two VHF/DF Stations to Obtain a Fix (or alternatively One VHF/DF Station and One other Navaid) Assessment of Groundspeed and ETA’s Timing LONG BRIEFING 6 USE OF DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) Availability of DME Facilities Location, Frequencies and Identification Codes Signal Reception Range Slant Range Use of DME to obtain Distance, Groundspeed and Minutes to Run Timing Use of DME to obtain a Fix AIR EXERCISE 6 USE OF DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) Station Selection and Identification Use of Equipment Functions Distance Groundspeed Time to Run Timing DME Arc Approach DME Holding LONG BRIEFING 7 USE OF TRANSPONDERS (SSR) Operation of Transponders Code Selection Procedure Emergency Codes Precautions when using Airborne Equipment AIR EXERCISE 7 USE OF TRANSPONDERS (SSR) Operation of Transponders 74 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Types of Transponders Code Selection Procedure Emergency Codes Precautions when Selecting the Required Code LONG BRIEFING 8 USE OF EN-ROUTE RADAR Availability of Radar Services Location, Station Frequencies, Call Signs and Hours of Operation AIP and NOTAMS Provision of Service Communication (R/T, Procedures and ATC Liaison) Airspace Radar Advisory Service Emergency Service Aircraft Separation Standards AIR EXERCISE 8 USE OF EN-ROUTE RADAR Communication (R/T Procedures and ATC Liaison) Establishing the Service Required and Position Reporting Method of Reporting Conflicting Traffic Terrain Clearance LONG BRIEFING 9 PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE Determining the Servicability of the Radio equipment Navigation Equipment Obtaining the Departure Clearance Setting up Radio Navaids prior to Take-off e.g. VOR Frequencies, Required Radials, etc Aerodrome Departure Procedures, Frequency Changes Altitude and Position Reporting as Required Standard Instrument Departure Procedures (SIDs) Obstacle Clearance Considerations AIR EXERCISE 9 PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE Radio Equipment Servicability Checks Departure Clearance Navaid Selection Frequencies, Radials, etc Aerodrome Departure Checks, Frequency Changes, Altitude and Postion Reports Standard Instrument Departure Procedures (SIDs) LONG BRIEFING 10 INITIAL/INTERMEDIATE/FINAL APPROACH PROCEDURES Precision Approach Charts Approach to the Initial Approach Fix and Minimum Sector Altitude Navaid Requirements, e.g. Radar, ADF, etc Communication (ATC Liaison and R/T Phraseology) Review: Holding Procedure The Final Approach Track Forming a Mental Picture of the Approach Completion of Aerodrome Approach Checks 75 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Initial Approach Procedure Selection of the ILS Frequency and Identification of Coding Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height Operating Minima Achieving the Horizontal and Vertical Patterns Assessment of Distance, Groundspeed Time, and Rate of Descent from the Final Approach Fix to the Aerodrome Use of DME (as applicable) Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Review of the Published Instructions Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) VISUAL MANOEUVRING AFTER AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing AIR EXERCISE 10 PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Initial Approach to the ILS Completion of Approach Planning Holding Procedure Frequency Selection and Identification of ILS Review of the Published Procedure and Minimum Safe Sector Altitude Communication (ATC Liaison and R/T Phraseology) Determination of Operating Minima and Altimeter Setting Weather Consideration, e.g. Cloud Base and Visibility Availability of Landing site Lighting ILS Entry Methods Radar Vectors Procedural Method Assessment of Approach Time from the Final Approach Fix to the Aerodrome Determination of: The Descent Rate on Final Approach The Landing Site and whether a Straight or Angled Approach will be required The Wind Velocity at the Surface and the Length of the Landing Site The Obstruction Heights to be borne in mind during Visual manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling approach The Approach: At the Final Approach Fix Use of DME (as applicable) ATC liaison Note Time and establish Airspeed and Descent Rate Maintaining the Localizer and Glide Path Anticipation in Change of Wind Velocity and its Effect on Drift Decision Height Landing Direction Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing LONG BRIEFING 11 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Non-Precision Approach Charts Initial Approach to the Initial Approach Fix and Minimum Sector Altitude ATC Liaison Communication (ATC Procedures and R/T Phraseology) Approach Planning: Holding Procedure The Approach Track 76 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.395 (continued) Forming a Mental Picture of the Approach Initial Approach Procedure Operating Minima Completion of Approach Planning Achieving the Horizontal and Vertical Patterns Assessment of Distance, Groundspeed Time, and Rate of Descent from the Final Approach Fix (FAF) to the Aerodrome Use of DME (as applicable) Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Review of the Published Instructions Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling Approach Visual Approach to Landing AIR EXERCISE 11 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE Completion of Approach Planning including Determination of: Descent Rate from the Final Approach Fix The Landing site and whether a Straight or Offset Approach will be Required The Wind Velocity at the Surface and Length of the Landing site The Obstruction Heights to be Borne in Mind During Visual Manoeuvring after an Instrument Approach Circling Approach Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Initial Approach to the NDB Frequency Selection and Identification of NDB Review of the Published Procedure and Minimum Safe Sector Altitude ATC liaison and R/T Phraseology Determination of Decision Height and Altimeter Setting Weather Considerations, e.g. Cloud Base and Visibility Availability of Landing site Lighting Determination of Inbound Track Assessment of Time from Final Approach Fix to the Missed Approach Point Holding at the Fix Aid ATC Liaison The Outbound Procedure (incl. Completion of Pre-Landing Checks) The Inbound Procedure Re-Check of Identification Code Altimeter Setting Re-Checked The Final Approach Note Time and Establish Airspeed and Descent Rate Maintaining the Final Approach Track Anticipation of Change in Wind Velocity and its Effect on the Drift Minimum Descent Altitude/Height Landing site Direction Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure Transition from Instrument to Visual Flight (Sensory Illusions) Visual Approach Straight or Offset as Necessary 77 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.415 SFI(H) – Revalidation and renewal Adjustment to paragraphs (a) and (b) (a) For revalidation of a SFI(H) authorisation the applicant shall within the last 12 months of the validity period of the authorisation : (1) conduct one simulator session of at least 3 hours as part of a complete type rating/refresher/recurrent training course; and or (2) have completed a proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.240 on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. (b) If the authorisation has lapsed the applicant shall have: (1) completed the simulator content of the applicable type rating course; (2) successfully completed an approved TRI(H) course as agreed by the Authority (see AMC FCL 2.365); and (3) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of a TRI(H) on the applicable type of helicopter under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRI(H) notified by the Authority for this purpose; and (4) have completed a proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JARFCL 2.240 on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. 78 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425 Standardisation arrangements for examiners See JAR-FCL 2.425 and 2.430 See AMC FCL 2.425 New Appendix with text coming from AMC FCL 2.425 with new text added GENERAL 1 Each JAA Member State will publish and submit to JAA a list of authorised examiners specifying each role and any additional matters for which they have been authorised. EXAMINERS DESIGNATION AND AUTHORISATION 2 An examiner will be designated and authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL and will be: (a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or (b) an instructor from a Registered Facility, FTO, TRTO; manufacturer’s facility or subcontracted facility; or (c) a pilot holding a specific authorisation from a JAA Member State. 3 All Examiners must be suitably trained, qualified and experienced for their role on the relevant type of helicopter. No specific rules on qualification can be made because the particular circumstance of each organisation will differ. It is important, however, that in every instance, the Examiner should, by background and experience, command the professional respect of the training organisation’s senior personnel. EXAMINER RE-AUTHORISATION 4 Examiners may be re-authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL 2.430. To be reauthorised, the examiner shall have conducted at least two skill tests or proficiency checks in every yearly period within the three year authorisation period. One of the skill tests or proficiency checks given by the examiner within the validity period of the authorisation shall have been observed by an inspector of the Authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised for this purpose. 79 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) AMC FCL 2.425 Standardisation arrangements for examiners See JAR–FCL 2.425 and 2.430 See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425 Part of the text of this AMC is now in new Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425, therefore, for clarification purposes, this AMC is re-written as follows GENERAL 1. The standards of competence of pilots depends to a great extent on the competence of examiners. Examiners will be briefed by the authority on the JAR-FCL requirements, the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks, and their documentation and reporting. Examiners should also be briefed on the protection requirements for personal data, liability, accident insurance and fees, as applicable in the JAA Member State concerned. 2. Each JAA Member State will publish and submit to JAA a list of authorised examiners specifying each role and any additional matters for which they have been authorised. EXAMINER AUTHORISATION 2. 3. Any dispensation from the qualification requirements of JAR-FCL 2.425(a) through (c) should be limited to circumstances in which a fully qualified examiner cannot be made available. Such circumstances may, for example, include skill tests on a new or rare type, for which the examiner should at least hold an instructor rating on a helicopter having the same kind and number of rotors/engines and of the same order of mass. 3. 4. Inspectors of the Authority supervising examiners will ideally meet the same requirements as the examiners being supervised. However, it is unlikely that they could be so qualified on the large variety of types and tasks for which they have a responsibility and, since they normally only observe training and testing, it is acceptable if they are qualified for the role of an inspector. 4. 5. The standardisation arrangements should include, as appropriate to the role of the examiner, at least the following instruction: (i) those national requirements relevant to their examination duties; (ii) fundamentals of human performance and limitations relevant to flight examination; (iii) fundamentals of evaluation relevant to examinee’s performance; (iv) JAR-FCL, related JARs and Joint Implementation Procedures (JIP) (v) Quality System as related to JAR-FCL; and (vi) Multi-crew co-operation (MCC), Human Performance and Limitations, if applicable. The Authority will employ, or have available, a sufficient number of inspectors or senior examiners to conduct, supervise and/or inspect the standardisation arrangements according to JAR-FCL 2.425(c). DESIGNATION, AUTHORISATION AND RE-AUTHORISATION OF EXAMINERS 6. An examiner will be designated and authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL and will be: (a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or (b) an instructor from a Registered Facility, FTO, TRTO; manufacturer’s facility or subcontracted facility; or (c) a pilot holding a specific authorisation from a JAA Member State. 7. All Examiners must be suitably trained, qualified and experienced for their role on the relevant type of helicopter. No specific rules on qualification can be made because the particular circumstance of each organisation will differ. It is important, however, that in every instance, the Examiner should, by 80 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) background and experience, command the professional respect of the training organisation’s senior personnel. 8. Examiners may be re-authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL 2.430. To be re-authorised, the examiner should have conducted at least two skill tests or proficiency checks in every yearly period within the three-year authorisation period. One of the skill tests or proficiency checks given by the examiner within the last 12 months of the authorisation period should have been observed by an inspector of the authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised for this purpose. LIMITATIONS An examiner should plan per working day not more than three test checks relating to PPL, CPL, 5. 9. IR rating, or more than two test/checks relating to FI, CPL/IR and ATPL or more than four tests/checks relating to type/rating. 6. 10. An examiner should plan at least three hours for a PPL, CPL, IR rating test/checks, and at least four hours for FI, ATPL or type rating tests/checks, including pre-flight briefing and preparation, conduct of the test/check, de-briefing and evaluation of the applicant and documentation. 7. 11. An examiner should allow an applicant adequate time to prepare for a test/check, normally not more than one hour. 8. 12. An examiner should plan a test/check flight so that the flight time in a helicopter or ground time in an approved synthetic training device is not less than: (a) 90 minutes for PPL and CPL, including navigation section; (b) 60 minutes for IR, FI and single pilot type rating; and (c) 120 minutes for ATPL. PURPOSE OF A TEST/CHECK 9. 13. Determine through practical demonstration during a test/check that an applicant has acquired or maintained the required level of knowledge and skill/proficiency; 10.14. Improve training and flight instruction in registered facilities, FTOs and TRTOs by feedback of information from examiners concerning items/sections of tests/checks that are most frequently failed; 11.15. Assist in maintaining and, where possible, improving air safety standards by having examiners display good airmanship and flight discipline during tests/checks. JAR-FCL STANDARDS 12.16. It is essential that examiners consistently apply JAR-FCL standards during a test/check. However, as the circumstances of each test/check conducted by an examiner may vary, it is also important that an examiner’s test/check assessment takes into account any adverse condition(s) encountered during the test/check. 81 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) CONDUCT OF TEST/CHECK 13.17. An examiner will ensure that an applicant completes a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements and is assessed against the required test/check standards. 14.18. (To be developed.) 15.19. Marginal or questionable performance of a test/check item should not influence an examiner’s assessment of any subsequent items. 16.20. An examiner should verify the requirements and limitations of a test/check with an applicant during the pre-flight briefing. 17.21. When a test/check is completed or discontinued, an examiner should de-brief the applicant and give reasons for items/sections failed. In the event of a failed or discontinued skill test or proficiency check, the examiner should provide appropriate advice to assist the applicant in re-tests/re-checks. 18.22. Any comment on, or disagreement with, an examiner’s test/check evaluation/assessment made during a debrief will be recorded by the examiner on the test/check report, and will be signed by the examiner and countersigned by the applicant. The same examiner should not re-examine a failed applicant without the agreement of the applicant. EXAMINER PREPARATION 19.23. An examiner should supervise all aspects of the test/check flight preparation, including, where necessary, obtaining or assuring an ATC “slot” time. 20.24. An examiner will plan a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements. Only the manoeuvres and procedures set out in the appropriate test/check form will be undertaken. The same examiner should not re-examine a failed applicant without the agreement of the applicant. EXAMINER APPROACH 21.25. An examiner should encourage a friendly and relaxed atmosphere to develop both before and during a test/check flight. A negative or hostile approach should not be used. During the test/check flight, the examiner should avoid negative comments or criticisms and all assessments should be reserved for the de-briefing. ASSESSMENT SYSTEM 22.26. Although test/checks may specify flight test tolerances, an applicant should not be expected to achieve these at the expense of smoothness or stable flight. An examiner should make due allowance for unavoidable deviations due to turbulence, ATC instructions, etc.. An examiner should terminate a test/check only for the purpose of assessing the applicant, or for safety reasons. An examiner will use one of the following terms for assessment: (a) A “pass”, provided the applicant demonstrates the required level of knowledge, skill/proficiency and, where applicable, remains within the flight test tolerances for the licence or rating; or (b) A “fail”, provided that any of the following apply: (i) the flight test tolerances have been exceeded after the examiner has made due allowance for turbulence or ATC instructions; (ii) the aim of the test/check is not completed; (iii) the aim of exercise is completed but at the expense of unsafe flight, violation of a rule or regulation, poor airmanship or rough handling; (iv) an acceptable level of knowledge is not demonstrated; (v) an acceptable level of flight management is not demonstrated; or 82 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) (vi) the intervention of the examiner or safety pilot is required in the interest of safety. (c) A “partial pass” in accordance with the criteria shown in the relevant skill test appendix of JAR-FCL. METHOD AND CONTENTS OF THE TEST/CHECK 23.27. Before undertaking a test/check an examiner will verify that the helicopter or synthetic training device intended to be used, is suitable and appropriately equipped for the test/check. Only helicopters or synthetic training devices approved by the Authority for skill testing/proficiency checking may be used. 24.28. A test/check flight will be conducted in accordance with the aircraft flight manual (AFM) and, if applicable, the aircraft operators manual (AOM). 25.29. A test/check flight will be conducted within the limitations contained in the operations manual of a FTO/TRTO and, where applicable, the operations manual of a registered facility. 26.30. Contents (a) A test/check is comprised of: - oral examination on the ground (where applicable); - pre-flight briefing; - in-flight exercises; and - post-flight de-briefing (b) Oral examination on the ground should include: - aircraft general knowledge and performance; - planning and operational procedures; and - other relevant items/sections of the test/check (c) Pre-flight briefing should include: - test/check sequence; - power setting and speeds; and - safety considerations (d) In-flight exercises will include: - each relevant item/section of the test/check (e) Post-flight de-briefing should include: - assessment/evaluation of the applicant - documentation of the test/check with the applicants instructor present, if possible. 27.31. A test/check is intended to simulate a practical flight. Accordingly, an examiner may set practical scenarios for an applicant while ensuring that the applicant is not confused and air safety is not compromised. 28.32. An examiner should maintain a flight log and assessment record during the test/check for reference during the post/flight de-brief. 29.33. An examiner should be flexible to the possibility of changes arising to pre-flight briefs due to ATC instructions, or other circumstances affecting the test/check. 30.34. Where changes arise to a planned test/check an examiner should be satisfied that the applicant understands and accepts the changes. Otherwise, the test/check flight should be terminated. 31.35. Should an applicant choose not to continue a test/check for reasons considered inadequate by an examiner, the applicant will be assessed as having failed those items/sections not attempted. If the test/check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only these items/sections not completed will be tested during a subsequent test/check. 83 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) 32.36. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test/check may be repeated once by the applicant. An examiner may terminate a test/check at any stage, if it is considered that the applicant’s competency requires a complete re-test/re-check. 84 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.430 Examiners – Period of validity Adjustment to this paragraph. An examiner’s authorisation is valid for not more than three years. Examiners are reauthorised at the discretion of the Authority, and in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425. 85 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.470 Theoretical knowledge examination subjects / sections and length of examinations - ATPL, CPL and IR New Appendix - This was previously a new AMC from NPA FCL 12. To save on paper quantity, the first two pages of this Appendix only are included. Aeroplane (A) ATPL Helicopter (H) CPL IR ATPL CPL IR (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) Airline Transport Pilot Licence Commercial Pilot Licence Instrument Rating (Aircraft) Airline Transport Pilot Licence Commercial Pilot Licence Instrument Rating (Aircraft) Subject Paper no 010 Air Law (B) 1 Exam length time Paper no 1.40 1 Exam length time 2 Exam length time Paper no 1 0.45 1 1.00 2.30 2 1.15 010 Air Law / Operational Procedures 020 Aircraft General Knowledge (B) Paper no Exam length time Paper no 1.40 1 2 Exam length time Paper no Exam length time 1.00 1 1.00 2.30 2 1.15 airframe/systems/power plant 2 2.00 (1.30) (0.15) 2 2.00 (1.30) (0.15) instruments/electronics 3 1.30 (1.00) (1.00) 3 1.30 (1.00) (1.00) 3 030 Flight Performance and Planning (B) 3.00 3 3 2.00 3.30 3 2.00 mass and balance 4 1.00 (0.45) 4 1.00 (1.00) performance 5 1.00 (0.45) 5 1.00 (1.00) flight planning & monitoring 6 3.00 (1.30) (2.00) 6 3.00 (1.30) 040 Human Performance & Limitations 7 1.00 4 0.30 4 0.30 7 1.00 4 0.30 4 0.30 050 Meteorology (B) 8 2.30 5 1.30 5 1.30 8 2.30 5 1.00 5 1.30 6 1.30 6 2.00 6 1.30 6 2.00 060 Navigation (2.00) general navigation 9 2.00 (1.00) (0.30) 9 2.00 (1.00) (0.30) radio navigation 10 1.30 (0.30) (1.30) 10 1.30 (0.30) (1.30) 070 Operational Procedures (B) 11 1.20 7 0.45 11 1.20 7 1.20 080 Principles of Flight (B) 12 1.00 8 0.45 12 1.00 8 1.00 9 090 Communications VFR communications 13 0.30 IFR communications 14 0.30 Total 14 20.30 9 0.30 7 (0.30) 11.45 7 9 0.30 13 0.30 (0.30) 14 0.30 8.45 14 20.30 9 0.30 7 (0.30) (0.30) 12.50 7 Note 1: refer to JAR-FCL 1.050(b) and 2.050(b) for crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge. Note 2: (B) indicates that “Bridge” examinations are required to convert from ATPL(A) to ATPL(H), and from ATPL(H) to ATPL(A). See AMC FCL 1.050 and 2.050. Note 3: the syllabus contained herein combines the theoretical knowledge syllabuses for Aeroplane and Helicopter. Column boxes marked with a cross (‘x’) indicate that knowledge of the relevant topic is required to be taught for the particular licence level. Column boxes marked with a bullet point (•) indicate that the sub-topic is NOT applicable to the particular licence level. 86 0.30 8.45 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.2 JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) JAR–FCL 2.490 Pass standards Amendment to paragraph (e) (e) An applicant failing to pass all of the relevant examinations, or whatever lesser number of papers is allowed by JAR–FCL, within the time limits specified in paragraph (d) above will be required to re-enter the examinations as though for an initial attempt. Before re-entry to the examinations, an applicant shall undertake further training as determined by the Authority. 87 1 July 2000 3. NPA-FCL-14.3 (Medical) NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.001 Definitions and Abbreviations (See IEM FCL 3.001) Addition of a new definition Co-pilot: “Co-pilot” means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the operational regulations under which the flight is conducted, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating. . 1 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.005 Applicability Addition of new paragraph (a)(6) (a) (6) A licence issued on the basis of training performed outside a JAA Member State, except training done according to JAR-FCL 3.055(a)(1), shall have an entry to limit the privileges to aircraft registered in the State of licence issue. 2 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR-FCL 3.015 Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Adjustment to para (b); adjustment to para (c) - this has been split into two different sub-paragraphs (b) Licences issued by non-JAA States (1) A licence issued by a non-JAA State may be rendered valid at the discretion of the Authority of a JAA Member State for use on aircraft registered in that JAA Member State in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015. Holders of a professional pilot’s licence wishing to exercise professional privileges, shall comply with the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.015. (2) Validation of a professional pilot’s licence and a private pilot licence with instrument rating shall not exceed one year from the date of validation, provided that the basic licence remains valid. Any further validation for use on aircraft registered in any JAA Member State is subject to agreement by the JAA Member States and to any conditions seen fit within the JAA. The user of a licence validated by a JAA Member State shall comply with the requirements stated in JAR–FCL. (3) The requirements stated in (1) and (2) above shall not apply where aircraft registered in a JAA Member State are leased to an operator in a non-JAA State, provided that the State of the operator has accepted for the period of lease the responsibility for the technical and/or operational supervision in accordance with JAR–OPS 1.165. The licences of the flight crews of the non-JAA State operator may be validated at the discretion of the Authority of the JAA Member State concerned, provided that the privileges of the flight crew licence validation are restricted for use during the lease period only on nominated aircraft in specified operations not involving a JAA operator, directly or indirectly, through a wet lease or other commercial arrangement. (c) Conversion of a licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State. (1) A professional licence and/or IR issued by a non-JAA State may be converted to a JAR–FCL licence provided that an arrangement exists between the JAA and the non-JAA State. This arrangement shall be established on the basis of reciprocity of licence acceptance and shall ensure that an equivalent level of safety exists between the training and testing requirements of the JAA and the non-JAA State. Any arrangement entered into will be reviewed periodically, as agreed by the non-JAA State and the JAA. A licence converted according to such an arrangement shall have an entry indicating the nonJAA State upon which the conversion is based. Other 3 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Member States shall not be obliged to accept any such licence. (2) A private pilot licence issued by a nonJAA Member State may be converted to a JAR-FCL licence by complying with the requirements shown in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.015. 4 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.016 Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a nonJAA Member State Adjustment to this paragraph, split into (a) and (b) (a) An applicant for a JAR–FCL licence and IR, if applicable, already holding at least an equivalent licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA State shall meet all the requirements of JAR–FCL, except the requirements of course duration, number of lessons and specific training hours may be reduced. The Authority may be guided as to the credits to be granted on the basis of a recommendation from an appropriate training organisation. (b) The holder of an ATPL(A) who meets the experience requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015 may be credited with the requirements to undego approved training prior to undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and the skill test, if that licence contains a valid multi-pilot type rating for the aeroplane to be used for the ATPL(A) skill test. 5 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.026 Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 New JAR paragraph from JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) (a) A pilot shall not operate an aeroplane carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or a flight simulator of the aeroplane type/class to be used, in the preceding 90 days; and (b) The holder of a licence that does not include a valid instrument rating (aeroplane) shall not act as pilot-incommand of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the takeoffs and landings required by JAR-FCL 1.026(a) above has been carried out by night. 6 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.030 Arrangements for testing Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) Notification of examiners to organisations and registered facilities. flying training (1) The Authority will maintain a list of all examiners it has authorised stating for which roles they are authorised. The list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within the JAA Member State. The Authority will determine by which means the examiners will be allocated to the skill test. notify each approved flying training organisation or registered facility of the examiners which it has designated for the conduct of skill tests for the issue of private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings at that flying training organisation or registered facility. The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A). (2) The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A). 7 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.065 Intentionally left blank Paragraph taken over from JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) (no longer intentionally left blank) JAR–FCL 3.065 State of licence issue (a) An applicant shall demonstrate the satisfactory completion of all requirements for licence issue to the Authority of the State under whose Authority the medical examination and assessment and the training and testing for the licence were carried out. Following licence issue, this State shall thereafter be referred to as the ‘State of licence issue’ (see JAR–FCL 3.010(c)). (b) Further ratings may be obtained under JAR– FCL requirements in any JAA Member State and will be entered into the licence by the State of licence issue. (c) For administrative convenience, e.g. revalidation, the licence holder may subsequently transfer a licence issued by the State of licence issue to another JAA Member State, provided that employment or normal residency is established in that State (see JAR–FCL 1.070). That State would thereafter become the State of licence issue and would assume the responsibility for licence issue referred to in (a) above. (d) An applicant shall hold only one JAR–FCL licence (aeroplane) at any time. 8 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.090 Authorised Medical Examiners (AMEs) Amendment to paragraph (a) (a) Designation. The Authority will designate and authorise Medical Examiners (AMEs), within its national boundaries, qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine. Physicians resident in non-JAA States wishing to become AMEs for the purpose of JAR–FCL may apply to the Authority of a JAA Member State. Following appointment the AME shall report to and be supervised by the Authority of that State. For Class 1 applicants Such such AMEs shall be restricted to carrying out standard periodic revalidation/renewal assessments. and shall report to and be supervised by the Authority of that State. 9 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) IEM FCL 3.095(c) APPLICATION FORM FOR A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE Amendment to paragraph (31) of the form (31) Declaration: I hereby declare that I have carefully considered the statements made above and that to the best of my belief they are complete and correct and that I have not withheld any relevant information or made any misleading statement. I understand that if I have made any false or misleading statement in connection with this application, or fail to release the supporting medical information, the Authority may refuse to grant me a medical certificate or may withdraw any medical certificate granted, without prejudice to any other action applicable under national law. CONSENT TO RELEASE OF MEDICAL INFORMATION: I hereby authorise the release of all information contained in this report and any or all attachments to the Aeromedical Examiner, the Authority and where necessary the Aeromedical Section of another JAA Member State, recognising that these documents or any other electronically stored data are to be used for completion of a medical assessment and will become and remain the property of the Authority, providing that I or my physician may have access to them according to national law. Medical Confidentiality will be respected at all times. 10 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.100 Medical certificates Adjustment of paragraph (e)(1) (e) Certificate annotation, limitation or suspension variation, (1) When a review has been performed and a variation granted in accordance with Paragraph JAR–FCL 3.125 this fact shall be stated on the medical certificate (see IEM FCL 3.100) in addition to any conditions that may be required, and shall will be entered on the licence at the discretion of the Authority. 11 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) IEM FCL 3.100 LIMITATIONS, CONDITIONS AND VARIATIONS Add new row number 3, and renumber the rest of the rows accordingly Amendments to limitations 2/3/ and 4 No CODE LIMITATION, CONDITION, VARIATION IMPOSED BY REMOVED BY 1 TML VALID ONLY FOR ..... MONTHS AME/AMC/AMS AMS 2 VDL SHALL WEAR CORRECTIVE LENSES AME/AMC/AMS AMS 3 VML SHALL WEAR MULTIFOCAL LENSES AME/AMC/AMS AMS LIMITATION No. 2: • VDL ‘SHALL WEAR CORRECTIVE LENSES’.: EXPLANATION : In order to comply with the vision requirements of your licence, you are required to wear those spectacles or contact lenses that correct for defective distant vision as examined and approved by an Authorised Medical Examiner whilst exercising the privileges of your licence. You must also carry with you a similar set of spectacles. Should you wear contact lenses, you must carry a spare set of spectacles as approved by an AME. You may not wear contact lenses whilst exercising the privileges of your licence until cleared to do so by an AME. LIMITATION No. 3: • VNL ‘SHALL WEAR MULTIFOCAL LENSES’. EXPLANATION: In order to comply with the vision requirements of your licence, you are required to wear those spectacles that correct for defective distant, intermediate and near vision as examined and approved by the Authorised Medical Examiner whilst exercising the privileges of your licence. Contact lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn. LIMITATION No. 3 4: • VNL ‘SHALL HAVE AVAILABLE CORRECTIVE LENSES FOR NEAR VISION’. EXPLANATION : In order to comply with the vision requirements of your licence, you are required to carry with you those spectacles that correct for defective near vision as examined and approved by an Authorised Medical Examiner whilst exercising the privileges of your licence. Contact lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn. Renumber limitations accordingly. 12 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.175 Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases Adjustment to paragraph (e) (e) Applicants with extreme obesity shall be a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as unfit only if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and a satisfactory cardiovascular risk review has been undertaken (see JAR–FCL 3.200). 13 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.295 Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases Adjustment to paragraph (e) (e) Applicants with extreme obesity shall be a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as unfit only if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and a satisfactory cardiovascular risk review has been undertaken (see JAR–FCL 3.320). 14 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Appendix 4 to Subparts B and C Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine disorders (See JAR–FCL 3.175 and 3.295) Adjustments to paragraphs 1 and 3, new paragraph 4, renumbering thereafter 1 Metabolic, nutritional or endocrinological dysfunction is disqualifying. Re-cCertification may be considered by the AMS if the condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable with or without replacement therapy, and regularly reviewed by an appropriate specialist. 3 The use of antidiabetic drugs is disqualifying. In selected cases, however, the use of biguanides or alpha-glucosidase inhibitors may be acceptable for multi-pilot operations (Class 1 ‘OML’) or unrestricted (Class 2) certification. The use of sulphonylureas may be acceptable for restricted Class 2 re-certification. 4. Addisson's disease is disqualifying. Re-certification (Class 1) or certification (Class 2) may be considered by the AMS, provided that cortisone is carried and available for use, whilst exercising the privileges of the licence. An "OML" or "OSL" limitation may be required. 15 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.210 Neurological requirements Adjustment to paragraph (b) (b) Particular attention shall be paid to the following (see Appendix 11 to Subpart B): (1) progressive disease of the nervous system, (2) epilepsy and other convulsive disorders causes of disturbance of consciousness, (3) conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction, (4) disturbance or loss of consciousness, (5) (4) head injury, (5) spinal or peripheral nerve injury. 16 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR–FCL 3.330 Neurological requirements Adjustment to paragraphs (b) and (c) (b) Particular attention shall be paid to the following (see Appendix 11 to Subpart C): (1) progressive disease of the nervous system, (2) epilepsy and other convulsive disorders, (3) conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction, (4) disturbance or loss of consciousness, (5) (4) head injury. (5) spinal or peripheral nerve injury. (c) Electroencephalography is required when indicated by the applicant’s history or on clinical grounds (see Appendix 11 to Subpart C). 17 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Appendix 11 to Subparts B and C Neurological requirements (See JAR-FCL 3.210 and 3.330) Adjustments to paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 4 and 8. New paragraphs 5 and 7 1 Any stationary or progressive disease of the nervous system which has caused or is likely to cause a significant disability is disqualifying. However, the AMS may consider minor functional losses, associated with stationary disease, acceptable after full evaluation. 2 A diagnosis of epilepsy is disqualifying., unless there is unequivocal evidence of a syndrome of benign childhood epilepsy associated with a very low risk of recurrence, and the applicant has been free of recurrence and off treatment for more than 10 years. One or more epileptic seizures after the age of 5 is disqualifying. However, a single convulsive episode may be accepted by the AMS when satisfactorily explained by a non-recurrent cause after full neurological evaluation. an acute symptomatic seizure which is considered by a consultant neurologist acceptable to the AMS to have a very low risk of recurrence may be accepted by the AMS. 3 Epileptiform Pparoxysmal EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves are disqualifying. 4 A history of one or more episodes of disturbed disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause is disqualifying. Such episodes A single episode of syncope may be accepted by the AMS when satisfactorily explained by a non-recurrent cause and after full neurological evaluation. but recurrent syncope is normally disqualifying. 5 Head injury involving loss of consciousness, see paragraph 4 above. Head injury without loss of consciousness, but including skull fracture, meningeal rupture or cerebral injury, may be accepted by the AMS after complete recovery and full neurological evaluation which may include psychological assessment. 5 An applicant having had a single afebrile epileptic seizure which has not recurred after at least 10 years while off treatment, and where there is no evidence of continuing predisposition to epilepsy, may be granted a licence if the risk of a further seizure is considered to be 1% per annum or less. For Class 1 certification an “as or with co-pilot “OML” limitation shall be applied. 6 Any head injury which has been severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is associated with penetrating brain injury must be assessed by the AMS and be seen by a consultant neurologist acceptable to the AMS. There must be a full recovery and a low risk (1% or less per annum risk of seizure) of epilepsy before re-certification is possible. 7 Consideration of applicants with a history of spinal or peripheral nerve injury shall be undertaken in conjunction with the musculo-skeletal requirements, appendices and Manual Chapter. The assessment of malignant conditions in this system is also explained in the Oncology 68 Chapter of the Manual which provides information regarding certification and should be consulted together with the Chapter specific to this system. All intracerebral malignant tumours are disqualifying. 18 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR-FCL 3.250 Oncology New paragraph for Subpart B (a) An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). (b) After treatment for malignant disease applicants may be assessed as fit in accordance with Appendix 19 to Subpart B. 19 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) JAR-FCL 3.370 Oncology New paragraph for Subpart C (a) An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). (b) After treatment for malignant disease applicants may be assessed as fit in accordance with Appendix 19 to Subpart C. 20 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Appendix 19 to Subparts B and C Oncology Requirements (See JAR-FCL 3.250 and 3.370) New Appendix 1. Class 1 certification may be considered by the AMS and Class 2 certification may be considered by the AME in consultation with the AMS if:(a) There is no evidence of residual malignant disease after treatment. (b) Time appropriate to the type of tumour has elapsed since the end of treatment. (c) The risk of inflight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is within limits acceptable to the AMS. (d) There is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment. Applicants who have received anthracycline chemotherapy shall require cardiological review. (e) Arrangements for follow-up are acceptable to the AMS. 2. Multi-pilot (Class 1 OML) for recertification or safety pilot (Class 2 OSL) restriction may be appropriate. 21 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) IEM FCL 3, B & C – JAA MANUAL OF CIVIL AVIATION MEDICINE METABOLIC, NUTRITIONAL AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS various changes to this section of the manual Manual, page 50 METABOLIC, NUTRITIONAL AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS 1 INTRODUCTION Metabolic disorders are common and may develop rapidly into an incapacitating condition that will preclude flying. Nutritional and endocrinal disorders are less common and more likely to be slow in development and onset. They may finally become incapacitating, however adequate treatment and review should allow safe continuation of flying duties. 2 ENDOCRINE DISORDERS Although these disorders are not a common aeromedical problem they are frequently insidious in onset and ultimately may endanger flight safety. The effects of modern treatments and the availability of replacement therapy have modified the certification decisions that are required. 3 THYROID DISORDERS Disease of the thyroid gland can cause goitre and/or important disturbances in function. Diffuse goitres with no endocrine imbalance have only a cosmetic or rarely a mechanical need for treatment. Nodular goitres, more common in women over 50, can produce both pressure symptoms and hyperthyroidism, but exclusion of malignancy is the most difficult problem and that may require expert and extensive investigation. 3.1 Hyperthyroidism This condition usually occurs in connection with toxic adenoma of the thyroid diffuse goitre (Graves Disease) and has an immunological basis. Mediation is by autoantibodies of against the TSH receptor which stimulate the autonomous over-production of thyroid hormone. Toxic nodular goitre or toxic adenoma also over produces thyroid hormone but not on an auto immune basis. a b Symptoms Sweating, palpitations, nervousness, irritability, insomnia, tremor, hyperactive bowels, weight loss (with appetite apparently normal), eye proptosis exophthaimus, smooth diffuse non-tender goitre, tachycardia (possibly atrial fibrillation and high output heart failure). In certain cases exophthalmos may be severe with paresis of eye muscles. There may be personality changes. Diagnosis Clinically the florid case is unmistakable. Confirmation may be obtained by: i determination of serum TSH level; ii determination of total serum T4/free T4; 22 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 iii JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) determination of free T4 serum T3/free T3 levels. iv determination of serum T3 concentration and uptake. Treatment Propyl thiouracil, methimazole or carbimazole, will control symptoms but the effect is slow, taking some four to six months. Propranolol may be used for quicker control of symptoms. Anti thyroid drugs may should be continued for twelve months and then withdrawn but only 30 50% of patients so treated may remain euthyroid, and so this treatment is not recommended for aircrew. Partial thyroidectomy is practised much less frequently now and is reserved mostly for cases with large and/or nodular goitres. d Radio iodine Radioiodine administration This is an effective treatment and no evidence of adverse mutagenetic effects on the gland has become apparent, even after many years. However, hypothyroidism is a common sequel and the percentage showing reduced or absent thyroid function grows year by year. Lifelong follow-up and appropriate substitution therapy is mandatory. e d Certification A hyperthyroid pilot is unfit for flying and must remain so until a stable euthyroid state has been attained. Certification may be considered by the AMS in any category when they are euthyroid. The individual must be annually reviewed (to include TSH estimation) to guard against recurrence or the development of hypothyroidism. The continued use of anti thyroid drugs, if well tolerated, is consistent with certification. Where eye involvement has occurred, the pilot must be cleared by an opthalmologist as well prior to returning to flying. c 3.2 Hypothyroidism The failure of the thyroid gland to produce sufficient thyroid hormone quantities may be due to interference with the decreased hypothalamic production of thyrotropinreleasing hormone (TRH) or the insufficient pituitary production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). However, much more frequently the condition is caused by inflammation or destruction of the thyroid gland, and may be a sequel of surgery or radio iodine treatment of the hyperthyroid state. The destruction of the gland through an auto immune mechanism may lead to apparent spontaneous cessation of function which may be an extremely chronic process. a Symptoms Thickening and dryness of the skin, hoarseness, constipation, bradycardia, apathy, depression, slow speech. These may slowly develop into a frank myxoedema with heart involvement failure, psychosis and in rare cases into the myxoedematous coma. b Diagnosis TSH is increased (in primary thyroid failure); T4/free T4 is decreased. c Treatment Hypothyroidism is perhaps the most satisfactory condition to treat, adequate substitution therapy makes the individual normal in every way. Treatment will usually be L-thyroxine 0.1–0.15 mg daily (with caution exercised in increasing to this dosage in cases with cardiac involvement). Treatment should be continued until TSH has dropped to a normal range and the patient is clinically euthyroid, and then continued for life. d Certification Florid hypothyroidism requires a temporarily unfit assessment . The candidate may be considered for re-certification in any capacity while euthyroid and taking prescribed medication. Annual endocrinological supervision is required by the AMS. Some hypothyroid patients cease taking medication because they feel entirely well, recurrence of the condition may not be obvious and the typical apathy may lessen the chance of recognition. Annual review is therefore essential. 4 PITUITARY DISORDERS 23 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 4.1 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Diseases of the anterior pituitary a Over-production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) An over-production of ACTH, usually by a basophil micro adenoma of the pituitary gland, can cause Cushings Syndrome Disease by over-stimulating the adrenal cortex to produce an excess of adrenal hormones. i Features. Features. Change in appearance, plethoric facies (moon face), obesity, striae, easy bruising, poor wound healing, myopathy, hypertension, diabetic tendency, osteoporosis. ii Diagnosis. Urinary free cortisols and serum cortisol are increased. Serum potassium may be decreased. Dexamethasone administration will not suppress the over-production of ACTH and cortisol. iii Treatment. Transphenoidal removal of themicroadenoma. iv b Certification. Applicants with acute Cushings Syndrome are unfit for flying and must be assessed temporarily unfit until a normal hormone balance is restored, by whatever means. After adequate radiation or surgery it may take six months or more for the symptoms and signs to subside and for the adrenal to resume normal production of cortisols. Certification should be denied for one year and cCertification by the AMS is dependent on satisfactory reports from, and supervision by, an endocrinologist. Over-production of prolactin Usually from a macro- or microadenoma of the pituitary, is now recognised as the most common hormonal abnormality of pituitary neoplasmia. The adenoma may be a micro adenoma or large enough to distort the sella turcica and cause pressure signs on adjacent structures, especially compression of the optic chiasm. i Symptoms. Galactorrhoea, amenorrhoea or irregular cycles in females; impotency and loss of libido in men. Headache and visual field defect in cases with macroadenoma. iii Diagnosis. Skull X-ray may show distortion of the sella turcica. The adenoma is diagnosed by MRI or CT of the pituitary gland. Serum prolactin levels exceeding 300 nanograms/ml are diagnostic of tumour, whether or not the sella is enlarged. (PRL) is elevated and usually a level above 100 ng/ml is diagnostic parameter for a prolactin secreting adenoma. iiiii Treatment. Many tumours respond rapidly and completely to dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine and this treatment may should be continued, if tolerated, on a long-term basis. On cessation of therapy, the tumour hormonal overproduction will most likely recur and resume hormonal production. Cases which do not respond or those with local pressure symptoms, may require surgical intervention. iiiiv Certification. An applicant with an active pituitary tumour or with an enlarged sella turcica macroadenoma and associated pressure signs is unfit. c Many individuals on long term medication (except bromocriptine because of its side-effects) without side effects or following successful surgery may be considered for certification after three months by the AMS. Continued treatment will presumably have to be lifelong so far as present experience indicates. Annual review must include ophthalmic and endocrinological examination. Growth hormone Hyper secretion of GH by an eosinophilic cell a pituitary adenoma produces acromegaly in the adult. i Features. Increase in bone size and soft tissues of hands, feet, supraorbital ridges, sinuses, mandible. Skin thick and coarse; tongue, lips and ears may be enlarged. Mental changes may be present. Any adult with significant changes 24 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) in appearance or size of extremities requires investigation. Skull x-ray may show an enlarged or eroded sella turcica. MRI ot CT imaging may be used for a pituitary tumor. GH may be determined by radioimmunoassay and The biochemical diagnosis is based on elevated serum glucose level which cannot be suppressed by glucose administration the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) and by an increased insulin like growth factor I (IGF I) level. ii Treatment. These tumours are not normally suppressed by dopamine agonists. Irradiation of the gland or surgery will be required. In the majority of cases, surgery is the choice of treatment. Irradiation and/or somatostatin analog treatment may also be required. iii Certification. Any pilot with a GH secreting tumour producing symptoms is unfit (also see the Oncology Chapter with regard to assessment). After operation or irradiation of the tumour, an individual must be very carefully reviewed over an extended period to determine whether he or she is fully recovered. Anyone with gross physical changes, most of which do not regress, is unlikely to be assessed fit Class 1 or 2. Specialist ophthalmological and endocrinological review will be required before and consideration by the AMS. Annual review is necessary of any cases assessed as fit. 4.2 Disease of the posterior pituitary a Diabetes insipidus (DI) failure to secrete ADH A condition marked by polyuria (partial or complete failure of vasopressin secretion by the posterior pituitary). b Diagnosis Fluid deprivation tests are diagnostic. If dehydration raises the serum osmotically osmolality to 295 mOsm/kg but the urine remains dilute, the diagnosis is diabetes insipidus. c Treatment Vasopressin will usually give excellent control of diuresis but the need for IM administration is restricting. Intranasal dDesmopressin (DDAVP), is effective and convenient. The dose must be individualised. d Certification Each case must be considered individually by the AMS with full specialist reports. An individual who is well controlled using vasopressin or desmopressin may be considered for initial Class 2 certification and Class 1 and 2 re-certification with regular specialist follow up. 5 DISEASES OF THE SUPRARENAL GLAND 5.1 Hypoadrenalism (Addison’s disease) a b c Aethiology and pathogenesis The adrenal cortex fails to produce hormones or adequate quantities of hormones. Most cases are due to an autoimmune process which eventually destroys the adrenal cortex. In the past granulomata of the cortex (e.g. tuberculomata or secondary malignant deposits) were not infrequent causes. destruction of the gland by tuberculosis was a frequent cause. Features The patient may complain of weakness, anorexia and weight loss. The onset is usually gradual though a sudden onset may be precipitated by unrelated infection or shock diseases, classically acute infections. Hyper pigmentation may be seen. The blood pressure will be low in crisis. Hypovolaemia is present and a small, compact heart on chest x-ray. Serum potassium is elevated and serum sodium depressed in crisis. The ECG may show changes related to the raised serum potassium. Diagnosis 25 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 d e 6 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Estimation of Low plasma cortisols or by demonstrating low levels of and decreased urinary cortisols excretion which do not rise after administration of ACTH. Elevated serum ACTH level. Treatment Using cortisol and cortisons in low doses. Additional medication is needed for infection or stress. An individual receiving adequate substitution therapy has no immediate risk of incapacitation. However, any minor infection or stress can quickly induce a relapse. Certification Fully stabilised cases may be considered by the AMS for re-certification. with a A multi-pilot limitation (Class 1 ‘OML’) or safety pilot limitation (Class 2 ‘OSL’) may be required. Regular specialist review will be required. DIABETES MELLITUS This carbohydrate metabolic disorder is associated with many complications which may produce sudden incapacityation or grossly reduced performance and thus cause a serious risk to air safety. 6.1 Diagnostic criteria Typical symptoms are weight loss, polyuria and polydipsia. The findings of 2% glycosuria and an elevated blood sugar are diagnostic. However, the difficulty arises when mild glycosuria and subsequent abnormal blood glucose levels are found in a symptomless applicant during routine medical examinations. An abnormal blood glucose requires glucose tolerance testing. 75 gram glucose loading in a minimum of 250 ml of water is given to a fasting subject who has eaten a normal diet containing 250 gram of carbohydrate for the previous few days. Fasting whole blood glucose levels and those two hours after glucose loading are the important levels. WHO agreed levels are outlined below. Fasting 2 hours post Normal <120 mg/100 ml < 6.7 mmol/l < 120 mg/100ml < 6.7 mmol/l Diabetes Mellitus ≥ 6.7 mmol/l ≥120 mg/100ml ≥10.0 mmol/l ≥180 mg/100ml Impaired Glucose Tolerance < 6.7 mmol/l < 120 mg/100ml ≥6.7–10 mmol/l ≥120–180 mg/100ml These results are valid for venous whole blood glucose. Differing laboratories and methods using capillary blood or plasma glucose may require minor changes to these figures. Diagnosis should not rely on one abnormal OGTT result and all borderline tests should be repeated. 26 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 6.2 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Classification The accepted modern classification is: 6.3 Type 1 Insulin Dependent (IDDM) Genetically associated with T-cell dependent auto immune disease and HLA factors. Very low or absent endogenous insulin. Liable to keto-acidosis. Onset typically under 30. Type 2 Non-insulin dependent (NIDDM) Related to obesity and familial tendency. Endogenous insulin always present and often hyperinsulinaemic with insulin resistance. Rarely if ever ketotic. Onset 40+ There is a non-obese sub-group which have different aetiologies and family aggregation. Glucose intolerance Latent, chemical, sub-clinical Likely to be obese, to have a strong family history or to be the mother of big babies. Liable to be prediabetic. Complications Macro-angiopathic vascular damage is the common background for the coronary, cerebral and peripheral arterial disease which can constitute a major aeromedical risk and may be related to the hyperlidipaemic effects of diabetes. Estimates of the risk of Type 2 diabetes vary, but it is clearly significant and increases with the duration of the condition. Microangiopathy is associated with progressive retinal and renal damage. Neuropathy is probably related to the long term effects of the metabolic abnormality and can involve motor, sensory and autonomic functions. Cataract is common in older patients. All complications tend to be found in long term diabetes, especially those which are poorly controlled, but can also appear early in the disease – retinopathy in particular can be an initial finding. 6.4 Management a Type 1: it should be noted that an apparent remission of insulin requirement invariably ends in relapse and the applicant should not be made fit certificated during such a remission or ‘honeymoon period’. b Type 2: requires: i optimum weight ii dietary control and/or oral hypoglycaemic drugs (insulin in occasional resistant cases is disqualifying) satisfactory control of blood glucose levels, lipids, blood pressure, and any other risk factors. iii 6.5 Treatment Reduction of carbohydrate and total calorie intake in the obese may be sufficient in many cases to reduce blood glucose levels acceptably. Other dietary modifications may include an increase in dietary fibre and a reduction in animal fat. Glucose levels are now usually assessed by home monitoring with meters or sticks. Routine urine testing is unreliable for treatment management because of the wide variation in renal threshold for glucose, especially in old people. Occasional gGlycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1) or serum fructosamine estimations are of good value as indicators of average blood glucose over periods of weeks. and are often used. 27 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) The ideal result of dietary management would include: Blood glucose Fasting less than 6.0 mmol usually control appropriate to diabetes management Within normal range less than 6.5 mmol less than 25 HbA1 Cholesterol Body mass index Regular exercise and no smoking Lipid control appropriate to diabetes management Type 2 diabetics may need oral hypoglycaemic drugs to supplement dietary treatment. This is especially likely in the non-obese sub-group. Quar-gum may be used as a dietary adjunct. but the two effective oral agents are: • Sulphonylureas Numerous, long and shorter acting variants • Biguanides Metformin In selected cases, the use of biguanides or alpha-glucosidase inhibitors may be acceptable for multi-pilot operations (Class 1 ‘OML’) or full certification (Class 2). The sulphonylureas are all capable of producing hypoglycaemia through their effect on intrinsic insulin production and their use is not compatible with certification except for Class 2 (OSL). 6.6 Long term monitoring of Type 2 diabetes The a b c d e monitoring process should consist of: careful examination to exclude common complications of diabetes; assessment of the degree of control; regular weight measurements; blood glucose measurements; urine test results (limited value). Air crew should undergo careful review of the following in addition to the periodic medical examination: a regular ophthalmoscopy after pupillary dilation to check for retinopathy and lens or vitreous opacities; b CNS examination for evidence of neuropathy; c periodic blood tests including biochemistry, renal function, liver function and plasma proteins, plus fasting blood lipids and cholesterol; d cardiological review with consideration of exercise electrocardiography. e periodic urinary tests for detecting early renal damage (microalbuminuria). 6.7 Certification Type 1 diabetics requiring exogenous insulin are disqualified. The intrinsic risks of the disease itself are further increased by that of hypoglycaemia. No present injection regime or insulin infusion pumps are sufficiently efficient to act as an artificial pancreas. Nevertheless, progress in such developments as islet transplantation may require consideration in the future. Type 2 diabetics fully controlled on diet alone may be fit unrestricted Class 1 ‘OML’ and may be fit unrestricted Class 2, subject to detailed follow-up at periodic medical examinations or at least annually. Those requiring biguanides or alpha-glucosidase inhibitors treatment in addition may be acceptable for the same certification Class 1 'OML' and unrestricted Class 2 certification but the follow-up would need to be more stringent, namely 6 monthly. The use of sulphonylureas is unacceptable except for Class 2 (OSL) certification. This Assessment applies to Class 1 and Class 2. Impaired glucose tolerance often represents a pre diabetic state that may convert to the full condition at a rate of around 4% per year. Cases may need dietary treatment and will require prolonged and detailed follow-up in order to continue medical certification. 28 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 7 d JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) GOUT Gout is a term representing a heterogeneous group of disease which in their full development are manifested by: a an increase in the serum urate concentration; b recurrent attacks of a characteristic acute arthritis in which crystals of monosodium urate monohydrates are demonstrable in leukocytes of synovial fluid; c aggregated deposits of monosodium urate monohydrate (tophi) chiefly in and around the joints of the extremities and sometimes leading to severe crippling and deformity; renal disease involving interstitial tissues and blood vessels; e uric acid nephrolithiasis (renal stones). These may occur singly or in combination. The full natural history of gout comprises four stages. 7.1 Asymptomatic hyperuricaemia This is especially common in overweight and hypertensive men who may be taking diuretics. Only a minority will progress to clinical gout. However, it carries a small risk of urate stone or nephropathy, potentially preventable by prophylactic treatment with allopurinol. In practice the inconvenience and other disadvantages of indefinite drug treatment outweigh any benefits. Low purine diets are rarely practicable but general health measures such as weight reduction, alcohol restriction, and a review of need for diuretic treatment should be attempted. 7.2 Acute gouty arthritis Acute gout, often recurrent, usually of the metatarso-phalangeal joint of a great toe, is not uncommon in air crew. Familial or constitutional factors are more important than obesity or alcohol, but combinations of predisposing and precipitating factors are usual. Acute gout and its immediate drug treatment should preclude flying duties which may be resumed 24-hours after conclusion of treatment. The inconvenience of this restriction often leads to maintenance treatment with allopurinol, which may precipitate acute gout early in the course of treatment so prophylactic treatment with an anti-inflammatory drug, such as indomethacin, is usually prescribed simultaneously for the first few weeks of treatment. Allopurinol may disturb liver functions and rarely causes more serious sideeffects, usually early in treatment. In practice it is generally well tolerated, normalising the serum uric acid, preventing attacks of gout and development of complications. This treatment can, and usually should, be continued indefinitely with periodic follow up. 7.3 Intercritical period The initial, acute attack of gout may last only a day or two up to several weeks, but characteristically subsides spontaneously. No sequelae ensure and resolution is complete. An asymptomatic phase termed ‘the inter critical period’ then commences. The patient is totally free of symptoms during this stage, a feature that is diagnostically important. While approximately 7 per cent never have an attack, approximately 60 per cent experience a recurrence within 1 year. However, the inter critical period may last up to 10 years and is terminated by successive attacks, each of which may last longer and resolve less completely than its predecessors. Later attacks tend to be polyarticular, more severe, more prolonged and associated with fever. In this stage gout may be difficult to differentiate from other types of polyarticular arthritis such as rheumatoid arthritis. Rarely patients progress directly from the initial acute attack to chronic polyarticular disease with no remissions. 7.4 Tophic and chronic gouty arthritis 29 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Effective therapy alters the natural history of the disease. Since the advent of effective anti-hyperuraemic therapy only a minority of patients develop visible tophi, permanent joint changes or chronic symptoms. Tophi, if present, will occur in the helix or antihelix of the ear, along the forearm, as enlargement of the Achilles tendon or at other pressure points. This stage of the disease is seldom a bar to flight duties. 7.5 Certification a Asymptomatic hyperuricaemia is not disqualifying. b Acute gout and the associated treatment require an assessment of temporarily unfit until 24-hours after cessation of treatment. c Tophic and chronic gouty arthritis should be assessed individually depending upon the strength, range of movement, pain and medication used. d The possibility of nephrolithiases at any stage must be considered. This Assessment applies to Class 1 and Class 2. 30 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) IEM FCL 3, B & C – JAA MANUAL OF CIVIL AVIATION MEDICINE AVIATION NEUROLOGY various changes to this section of the manual Manual, page 97 AVIATION NEUROLOGY 1 INTRODUCTION Despite the increasing automation of modern civil aircraft, human pilots will remain a necessity just as long as their brain continues to be more comprehensive and flexible than aircraft systems. The effectiveness of a pilot as a control system is normally assessed operationally during his/her training and subsequent flying career. This assessment is subjective, giving few comparable parameters by which perfomance change can be recognised and so `pilot error´ remains the single major reported cause for aircraft accidents. Given that `pilot judgmental error´ is such an important aspect of aviation safety with so few specific parameters it is not surprising that those areas of cerebral activity that can be measured and examined receive very close scrutiny by the aviation medical physician, frequently out of proportion to the risk involved. The nNeurological assessment for aviation fitness, as with other systems, must therefore be assessed include not only in the terms of what can be measured and examined but also regarding the aviation risk involved the present physical fitness, but the likely natural history of a particular condition and the future risk to flight safety. 2 PATHOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM A pPathology of the nervous system may: a Reduce or distort the sensory input from, and appreciation of the external and internal environment (flight instruments and aids). b Impair assessment, judgement and decision making. c Affect the motor skills necessary for good piloting. Effects of such pathology may be episodic, potentially recurring, static or progressive. Neurological assessment should include a careful history and physical examination with particular attention being paid to those areas mentioned in the standards and particularly recognised as aviation problems. Consultation with appropriate specialists is essential in doubtful cases or when questionable findings are noted. 3 NEUROLOGICAL FITNESS A satisfactory assessment may be achieved if: a There is no demonstrable abnormality of history, examination or performance; b any abnormality noted as an acceptable risk of hazard to the safety of the flight operation concerned. Such abnormality may be congenital or acquired, it may additionally be a single event, or recurrent, static, or progressive or intermitent but potentially recurrent. The condition may improve but subsequently relapse. Neurological ‘fitness’ for aviation purposes must therefore be demonstrated at initial examination and predicted to be maintained throughout the defined period of medical certificate validation. 4 CONGENITAL NEUROLOGICAL PATHOLOGY In cCongenital conditions include hamartoma and arachnoid cysts discovered incidentally and spinal disorganisation including minor degrees of spina bifida disorders of the nervous system eEach case must be considered individually, and the decision on fitness should be based on present physical 31 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) fitness and the risk of incapacitation in the future. but usually the decision is one of operational competence rather than risk of incapacitation. 5 ACQUIRED NEUROLOGICAL PATHOLOGY This area may be considered under the headings of trauma, infection, metabolic, vascular, neoplastic, auto immune, allergic and degenerative. 5.1 Traumatic pathology a Trauma Head injury with associated brain damage is common but varies considerably in severity and extent.Any blunt head injury is associated with a risk of permanent damage to the brain. Brain damage occurs following a penetrating brain injury, depressed skull fracture particularly with a torn dura, or in a severe blunt head injury penetration/laceration, deformation and acelerations. Secondary complications may occur subsequent to the loss of cerebrovascular autoregulation and formation of intracranial haematoma andor traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage. Further difficulties may ensue associated with infection, surgery or CSF fistulae. Long term one may see the development of post traumatic epilepsy or hydrocephalus. The aviation neurological assessement of head injury should consider firstly whether any significant CNS injury has occurred. A scalp laceration may appear severe but without loss of consciousness is unlikely to be significant, conversely any scalp injury may be associated with na alteration of consciousness and this possibility should be carefully explored in the history. The severity of a blunt head injury should be assessed by: i duration of unconsciousness i the presence of demonstrable neurological deficit; ii duration of post traumatic amnesia (PTA) (the use of strong narcotic analgesics may produce amnesia wich is not brain injury related); iii the presence of a skull fracture, particularly a depressed fracture and whether it is associated with a torn dura; and any associated meningeal rupture. iv the presence of a demonstrable neurological deficit; Professional aircrew who have suffered minor brain injury (loss of consciousness or amnesia < 30 minutes) associated with concussion and/or short periods of loss of consciousness may be returned to flying after a minimum period of four weeks. Intermediate degrees A moderate head injury (loss of consciousness or amnesia for 30 minutes to 24 hours or a skull fracture), as indicated by several minutes of loss of consciousness or prolonged PTA, but with full apparent recovery may require longer periods of temporarily unfit assessment usually associated with full neurological investigation assessment. A full neurological assessment should include neurological examination, EEG, CT scan, MRI, and neuropsychological examination, as needed. Severe head injury (loss of consciousness or amnesia > 24 hours , subdural haematoma or brain contusion) including perforation of the meninges must be assessed individually and usually requires extended observation ( up to minimum two years) before consideration for recertification, and there should frequently be an initial restriction to multi-pilot operations even in a multipilot environment. The primary concern. One of the main concerns is that the risk of post traumatic epilepsy, the risk of which falls off progressively with time to some extent, and probably reaches 1% per annum after 5 to 7 years. virtually reaching that of the peer group after 2 years This assessment applies to Class 2 however Class 2 ‘OSL’ may be appropriate initially. b Spinal Injury In the absence of major neurological deficit the results can be assessed operationally after stabilisation has occurred, normally at least 6 months post injury. Various Minor degrees of functional loss can may be accepted ( see musculo skeletal chapter) but consideration must also be given to associated conditions such as impaired sphincter control leading to urinary tract calculus formation. 5.2 Cerebral infection Obviously aAcute infection, abscess, acute meningitis or encephalitis is are disqualifying. Each recovered case will 32 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) require individual assessment for return to flying with primary consideration being given to long term sequelae. Acute symptomatic seizures associated with acute cerebral inflammation or infection are not necessarily permanently per se disqualifying, although demonstrated full recovery over an extended period of time with a normal satisfactory EEG may be required. In some conditions such as cerebral abscess, the risk of epilepsy is so high that a long term unfit assessment will result. Approximately 20% of HIV positive individuals present with neurological symptoms (including dementia). However such a presentation is usually gradual with little chance of acute, sudden incapacitation. From this point of view it would therefore seem unreasonable to assess as temporarily unfit the asymptomatic HIV positive individual however, restriction to multipilot operation with at least 6 monthly review is necessary. Once symptoms of the AIDS-related complex have appeared a temporarily long term unfit assessment would appear is inevitable as, despite remissions, the usual course is of progressive deterioration. The psychological trauma of HIV sero positivity is major and formal psychiatric opinion may be necessary is recommended before any return to flying can be considered. More recent publications would indicate that damage to the individual immune response can be staged (see Chapter on Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Other Infections), therefore making assessment somewhat easier. This assessment applies to Class 2. Class 2 ‘OSL’ may be appropriate if immune staging is not available. 5.3 Metabolic cerebral disorders The problems here are normally secondary, i.e. hyper and hypoglicaemia, acidosis associated with renal failure, or hepatic failure, and are therefore already disqualifying. Cerebral symptoms associated with hyper or hypothyroidism may fully recover and so be returned to flying after stabilisation and operational assessment (see metabolic chapter). Alcohol abuse, both acute and chronic can produce cerebral problems (for assessment see psychiatric notes). The alcohol withdrawal convulsion is example of a toxic convulsion which may have a good subsequent prognosis when associated with successful rehabilitation, but note the pilot who may have a constitutional predisposition to epilepsy which is made overt by alcohol. Acute decompression and hypoxia are further examples causes of metabolic disturbance that may recover fully in due course. 5.4 Cerebrovascular disorders Vascular lesions cause ischaemia or infarction with a variable degree of brain damage and although the effects may appear reversible, there may be long term sequelae. In thrombo-embolic atherosclerostic vascular disease there is a high risk of recurrence, or of other vascular disease such myocardial infarct. Lesions may be: a Haemorrhagic (aneurysms, arteriovenous malformation (AVMs) and spontaneous (intracerebral) bleeds. b Vasospastic ( as in the initial phase of migraine ) cb Vaso-occlusive (thrombo-embolism, thrombosis or vascular distortion). Clinically all such conditions are potentially incapacitating, such incapacitation may or may not be reversible and may recur unpredictably because of the risk of sudden unpredictable onset. Migraine varies greatly a simple recurrent throbbing headache may be classed as migraine but if responsive to minor analgesics such as Aspirin can be acceptable. Episodes associated with visual aura, vomiting and photophobia, responding only to vasoactive medication are disqualifying unless a single demonstrable trigger wich can be eliminated, is found ( see `Episodic Neurological Problems´). Transient Cerebral Ischaemic Attaks (TIAs) are historically diagnosed but carry an increased risk (approximately 5% annum) of stroke. CVA and also sudden death ( aproximately 5% per annum usually myocardial infarction). Such risk would seem unaccceptable following consultant diagnostic confirmation. If the diagnosis is confirmed, the risk of recurrence or of other vascular disorders is unacceptably high and results in long term loss of medical certification. Cerebro Vascular Accident (CVA) requires immediate grounding. It is suggested that 5% per annum will recur, and in addition there is an increased risk of other vascular disease, particularly myocardial infarction. and there is also na increased risk of myocardial infartion Spontaneous Subarachnoid Haemorrhage is associated with: 33 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 i ii iii JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) aneurysm (80%) arteriovenous malformation (15%) unidentified cause (<5%) When a diagnosis of (i) or (ii) is confirmed if the abnormality is supratentorial, the high risk of epilepsy would make revalidation unlikely the late epileptic risk would make revalidation extremely unlikely. Surgical repair of an aneurysm is associated with brings an additional post craniotomy risk of epilepsy due to craniotomy however, where published data demonstrates post operative criteria for an incapacitation risk <1%, recertification may be considered. Where no cause is identified (iii) and recovery complete, multipilot certification may be considered in normotensive individuals after 9 months. In certain circumstances, where the risk of epilepsy eventually falls to less than 1% per annum, recertification may be considered with an as or with co-pilot ‘OML’ restriction. Where no structural disease is identified as the cause of the subarachnoid haemorrhage, and after a complete recovery, multi-pilot certification may be considered after 9 months and unrestricted certification after 2 years. Aneurysms which are located below the tentorium cerebri (i.e. basilar aneurysms) are not associated with a risk of epilepsy, and provided they are successfully treated surgically and the person has made a full recovery, recertification is possible. Where no structural disease is identified as the cause of the subarachnoid haemorrhage, and after a complete recovery, multi-pilot certification may be considered after 9 months and unrestricted certification after 2 years. Class 2 ‘OSL’ assessment is also appropriate. Class 2 may be considered after 2 years. Cerebral decompression sickness is due to the formation of bubbles of nitrogen in body organs following a reduction in ambient pressure. Such bubbles may coalesce and produce local symptoms or, if in the blood, circulate throughout the body including the brain. Decompression sickness is rare in normal aircraft operations but should be considered when unpressurised aircrafts are flying above 15,000 feet, although it can occur at lower cabin altitudes when flying immediately after SCUBA diving. Individuals who have experienced this condition as divers or in previous military flying should be carefully reviewed as permanent damage may be caused by repeated exposure. 5.5 Tumour / neoplasia Nervous siystem Intracerebral tumours may be benign or malignant, primary or secondary. They may be associated with progressive focal deficit, vascular and CSF disturbance as well as increased incidence of epilepsy. The diagnosis must be is incompatible with certification. Potential exceptions are: a Hamartoma discovered incidentally are dysplastic rather than neoplastic, and each case can must be considered on its merits but the potential risk of epilepsy in intracerebral abnormalities may be high and prevent certification. Benign extracerebral neoplasms presenting with cerebral distortion but not epilepsy. Typically db Commonly meningiomata, they may be considered for recertification two years post-operatively as there is but there is often a significant risk of post operative epilepsy. c ‘Cured’ neoplasia. The ‘benign’ tumours of childhood reticuloses and haemangioblastomata. Each may be considered on its merits after exclusion of late complication, multiple tumours, recurrence and systemic involvement. Benign extramedullary spinal or peripheral nerve neoplasms. Usually These are bd neurofibromata but ocasionally they can be or meningiomata. Recertification can be considered after due full recovery, but again the potential risk of epilepsy must be considered if the tumour was adjacent to the cerebral hemispheres.assessment of any neurological deficit Whenever recertification is considered the pilot must have undergone a neurological assessment by a consultant neurologist and the AMS must satisfy themselves be satisfied that any neurological deficit is compatible with pilotage (medical flight test), and that the risk of epilepsy is minimal (less than 1% per annum). Certification should be limited to multi-pilot (Class 1 ‘OML’) operation for an extended period. Reference should also be made to the oncology chapter. This assessment also applies to Class 2. 5.6 Auto-immune and allergic conditions 34 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Peripheral neuropathies and fitness to fly is dependent on the underlying pathology, present neurological deficit, and prognosis. The Guillain-Barré syndrome often recovers completely and applicants can be assessed purely by their functional ability. Recurrences occur rarely. May be reversible and can be assessed against function. Severely affected individuals recover more slowly and often show residual muscle weakness and other permanent deficits. Occasionally there are recurrences . Allergic and post infective encephalopathies require consideration of the epileptic risk, even if functional recovery is good. Myopathy with significant fatiguing weakness and myasthenia gravis are incompatible with certification. 5.7 Neurodegenerative diseases Central nervous system degeneration may be cell specific (e.g. motor neurone disease), system based (e.g. Parkinsonism) or more generalised ( e.g. pre senile dementia). Neurodegenerative disease is progressive and therefore usually incompatible with certification. a Motor Neurone Disease If a diagnosis is confirmed the condition will The disease usually progresses rapidly, and the applicant must be grounded. The more benign spinal muscular atrophy may be compatible with continuation of flying subject to regular neurological assessment and flight simulator checks. b Parkinson’s Disease In the very early stages, mild symptoms may allow continuation of certification with a multi-pilot (Class 1 ‘OML’) restriction, with mild tremor and muscle rigidity may allow a return to flying on medication but as the condition progresses loss of certification becomes inevitable owing to the deterioration of autimatic movement and prolonged reaction times. Most medication for Parkinson’s Disease is incompatible with flying, exceptions being amantadine and selegiline. Frequent follow-up by an accepted neurologist is required. A practical flight test or simulaor check may be necessary. This assessment applies to Class 1 and Class2. 5.8 Cerebral decompression sickness Cerebral decompression sickness is due to the formation of bubbles of nitrogen in body organs following a reduction in ambient pressure. Such bubbles may coalesce and produce local symptoms or, if in the blood, circulate throughout the body including the brain. Decompression sickness is rare in normal aircraft operations but should be considered when unpressurised aircrafts are flying above 15,000 feet, although it can occur at lower cabin altitudes when flying immediately after SCUBA diving. Individuals who have experienced this condition as divers or in previous military flying should be carefully reviewed as permanent damage may be caused by repeated exposure. c Dementia A diagnosis may be difficult to make in the early stages, and may present with a failure of operational checks at some level. A full clinical assessment including psychometric tests must be carried out by a consultant neurologist, psychiatrist and/or clinical psychologist and where there is any uncertainty of diagnosis the subject should be grounded. A confirmed diagnosis of dementia is incompatible with certification fitness to fly. A medical flight test may be appropriate for Class 2. d Spinal Spondylosis/Degenerative Disc Disease This is a common condition and flight crew are not excluded, particularly those who may have experienced ejection seat trauma, whilst escaping from military aircraft. Poor posture, vibration and adverse ergonomic factors are likely to enhance exacerbate any tendencies towards back problems and aircrew should be encouraged to exercise when off duty in order to maintain good paraspinal muscle tone. Modern cockpits are being designed with rather better seating and ergonomic consideration but helicopter still need a great deal of work in this area. e Instability of Intervertebral Discs Spinal root compression caused by cervical or lumbar ( intravertebral intervertebral) disc degeneration and protusion are a further common cause of back pain. Aircrew developing such problems should be treated in the normal clinical fashion. However, before returning a pilot to flying duties due consideration must be given to the possibility of emergency asymmetric rudder in the event 35 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) of engine failure of a multi-engine aircraft. A simple test of the type of movement and loads involved is the ability to step up onto a kitchen chair or wooden box 40 cms high. If this can be completed without pain, the pilot is considered fit for flying. Surgical procedures such as laminectomy require a similar degree of recovery before clearance to fly and will usually remain unfit for about 3 months. 6 EPISODIC NEUROLOGICAL PROBLEMS DISORDERS 6.1 Migraine Migraine is a common constitutional functional disorder which is unpredictable and potentially disabling. Normally considered to be associated with vasospasm of cerebral vessels. The symptoms vary in severity, from the classical triad of visual aura, cephalgia and nausea (migraine with aura) to a recurrent vascular type of with vomiting to an extension of the common tension headache with nausea but without neurological symptoms ( see cerebrovascular note migraine without aura). Classical Migraine is frequently disabling and unpredictable, frequently associated with marked visual disturbances which may be severe, and is therefore a potential flight hazard ( flashes, hemianopia, quadrantanopia). It may respond to early treatment with ergotamine and other drugs however, such medications are frequently unacceptable in aviation due to side effects. Know migraineurs Anyone with a history of migraine should not be selected for professional aircrew training Class 1 certification due to the unpredictability and disabling nature of the condition but those who present after qualification either trough worsening of the condition or na in flight incident should be neurologically assessed and any causal factor adressed. If no other structural abnormality. If no underlying disease is found and the individual is migraine free remains free of further attacks for a period of 3 to 6 months, a return to flying may be approved in a multi-pilot (Class 1 ‘OML’) role but should be considered unfit solo situation. Single crew approval must be evaluated against the history and type of operation. Exceptions would be if the migraine attacks are infrequent and due to a specific precipitant, and avoidance of this precipitant results in no further migraines for a period of more than 2 years. Class 2 certificate holders may be allowed to fly solo if their attacks are mild and very infrequent (no more than two attacks per year). Frequent migraines are incompatible with any form of flying. Some prophylactic treatments such as propranolol, may be acceptable with each case being reviewed individually 6.2 Cluster headache Cluster headache is temporarily disabling and incompatible with flying until the person has been in remission and off treatment for at least 3 months. Restoration of certification (Class 1 and Class 2) may be then allowed. A similar assessment applies to Class 2 6.23 Neuralgic Syndromes Cluster headaches and Trigeminal neuralgia and other neuralgic syndromes are extremely painful and unpredictable, they and require neurological assessment and pharmacological. Medical treatment is often unaceptable for incompatible with fitness to flying but following surgical treatment or after a natural remission if the person has been off treatment for more than 3 months without recurrence then they could be considered fit for recertification.Individuals wiyh such conditions need an extended pain free period of temporarely unfit assessment before being considered for a return to multipilot flying. A similar assessment applies to class 2 `OSL´ and Class 2. 6.3 Episodic impairment of Conscious Level Fatigue 6.4 Excessive daytime drowsiness Conditions causing excessive drowsiness while awake are either due to natural sleep loss, narcolepsy, idiopathic hypersomnia, or sleep apnoea. Daytime episodic drowsiness of whatever cause, except transient poor sleep hygiene, is unacceptable. Episodic Impairment of conscious Level Fatigue or sleep loss can produce micro sleep episodes which are immediately resolved by rest. Any other episodes need to be investigated neurologically as the differential diagnosis is wide a diagnosis need to be made and the potential risk of recurrence assessed. Narcolepsy, even when treated sucessfully, is incompatible with fitness to flying. A history of recurrent fainting, whether vasovagal or syncopal is unacceptable as precipitating factors may well arise when flying. 36 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Hypoglycaemia is a popular diagnosis but rarely proven if it is, the condition should be disqualifying. Occasionally an episode may follow alcohol withdrawl, under these circumstances, provided any alcohol abuse is treated and the individual remains asymptomatic, a return to multi crew ( Class 1 `OML´) certification must be considered. A similar Class 2 `OSL´ assessment may be with consideration of Class 2 after 2 years. 6.45 Sleep apnoea syndrome The sleep apnoea syndrome is primary (central) or obstructive. The latter most commonly affects overweight males, especially between the ages of 40 and 60 years. The syndrome results from frequent apnoeas during sleep, associated with loud intermittent snoring. Sleep recordings reveal apnoeic episodes in REM and non REM sleep. There may be an absence of respiratory effort with cessation of diaphragmatic movement. The upper airway can remain open even without airflow (central apnoea) or there may be excessive respiratory effort due to airways obstruction. The chronically disturbed nocturnal sleep and hypoxaemia causes excessive daytime sleepiness. This leads to inappropriate and unrefreshing naps, an obvious safety hazard in a pilot who may also have disruption to deal with whose sleep is often already disturbed by disruption of circadian rhythm. The sleep apnoea syndrome evolves gradually and may not be fully described by the sufferer. It should be considered with any presentation of excessive sleepiness which is not improved by a period of undisturbed sleep. Investigation should include respiratory studies and sleep recordings. The condition can be treated but a diagnosis will require flight crew to be assessed temporarily unfit until all aspects of the recovery and treatment can be considered by the AMS. See the Respiratory System Chapter. Demyelination Demyelinating diseases of the Central Nervous System 6.56 Episodic neurological symptoms, often with full recovery, give rise to suspicion of multiple or disseminated sclerosis (MS). Any part of the central nervous system may be affected, however optic neuritis is a frequent presentation. Over 70% of such cases subsquently develop multiple sclerosis. There are no screening tests for MS, but a family history does increase the risk. The disease profile is variable – over 20 years some will progressively deteriorate and die whereas others may have a single episode with remission over 20 years before further symptoms. Initial applications with an established history must therefore be refused certification although it may be possible to continue certification of established aircrew in the multipilot role (Class 1 `OML´ or Class 2 `OSL´). Any neurological event of any note requires specialist neurological assessment. If multiple sclerosis is considered a strong possibility investigation, should include cerebrospinal fluid (protein bands) MRI scans and evoked potentials (visual, auditory and somatosensitive). Should the probability remain high but symptoms are fully recovered an individual may be considered for multipilot operations after six months. The mean of symptom recurrence is approximately four years with only 5% being sudden and 20% severe. The inflight risk is therefore small ( less than 1% per annum or one in 10-7 flying hours ). Individuals who are certificated in this fashion require six monthly review: a ophthalmologically to look for colour contrast acuity phosgenes, after images and post fixation blindness; b operationally (simulator) to assess attention overload and judgement. c neurological review Any individual who is left with a significant neurological deficit after an exacerbation must be considered unfit. A similar assessment is appropriate for Class 2 `OSL´. Peripheral nerve lesions e.g. entrapment syndromes amd mononeuropathies must be clearly diagnosed and their individual deficit assessed against operational criteria. Epilepsy and other causes of loss of consciousness 6.67 This is defined as the clinical manifestation of na episode of abnormal electrical activity in the cortex. It is a symptom and sign rather than a diagnosis as such but the term is frequently used when considering any convulsive episode. Epilepsy, when diagnosed, A diagnosis of epilepsy is disqualifying because of the high risk of, the possibility of unacceptable recurrence and the risk of a generalised seizure distraction in the cockpit being unacceptable at any level of operation. Unfortunately the.A diagnosis of epilepsy is not normally cannot be made until at least two convulsive episodes seizures have occurred, this leaves de licensing authority in the difficult position of assessing those who have had a single convulsion. but a 37 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) single unprecipitated afebrile seizures carries an unacceptably high risk of recurrence, and will result in loss of certification for a minimum period of 10 years. If after that time, in the opinion of a consultant neurologist, there is no continuing evidence of an increased risk of recurrence of seizures, recertification may be possible, Class 1 multipilot “OML” or Class 2 without limitation. No investigation is available to confirm or refute the diagnosis of epilepsy and so it remains, for most cases, a clinical diagnosis based upon the third party historical reports. Although the majority of genetically determined epilepsies become apparent earlier than the age of 20, a significant minority occur in the third and sometimes fourth decade. The risk of recurrence of a single seizure is initially 50% and the increased risk does not fall to that of the general population until at least 10 years has elapsed. Approximately 70% of epileptics are genetically presdiposed and will present before the age of 20, the incidence of primary seizure then levels off until about age 60 when it climbs once more. In the fying age group 15% of seizures are considered unprovoked with a further 15% alcohol or `stress´provoked. The risk of recurrence in established aircrew following a single seizure is not properly established but it would appear to be approximately 3% per annum overall. Those which are alcohol provoked and no demonstrable EEG abnormality would seem to have the best prognosis and may be considered for multipilot certification ( Class 1 `OML´ or Class 2 `OSL´) after full consideration of any alcohol abuse problem. For the remainder, the most important information is first hand witness reports when a standardised witness report form is helpfull. Neurological specialist review and EEG should be arranged with the past history being carefully serutinised before making a final decision. Ultimately, any single unprovoked seizure after the age of five must be considered disqualifying ( vide infra ) particularly if associated with EEG abnormality with the consideration that a little more latitude in the area of `provocation´ can be allowed for establish aircrew. 6.8 Benign rolandic febrile seizures of childhood Benign febrile seizure of childhood occurring before the age of 5 are compatible with certification 6.9 Benign Rrolandic epilepsy of childhood This is a specific type of convulsive disorder epileptic syndrome occurring in children which can be associated with a characteristic abnormality on the EEG generalised convulsion (grande mal). Seizure cease after the age of 15 with a very low rate of recurrence, and if the diagnosis is well documented and confirmed by a consultant neurologist, and the applicant has been free of seizure for 10 years then certification is possible. The EEG presentation is typical and the condition disappears in adolescence with subsequent adult risk of seizure very slightly greater than that of the peer population. If a fully documented history is available, the MAS may assess as fit for all classes of certificate. 6.810 Pharmacological control of epilepsy Although epileptics who appear well controlled on medication may recover driving privileges, this approach is not considered acceptable in flying. Pharmacological response varies and even apparently stable individuals have a seizure recurrence rate far higher than the nominal aeromedical risk of 1% per annum. 7 THE ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAPH (EEG) IN AVIATION NEUROLOGY The EEG is a clinical tool of value to neurological specialists useful in epilepsy and, although widely despite its limitations, is used for to screen aircrew applicants for a latent predisposition for epilepsy. Its sensitivity and specificity under such circumstances remain ill-defined. Nevertheless. The risk to safety occasioned by in-flight convulsion is such that an EEG is required for all initial Class 1 medical examinations. Electroencephalograph technique. In order to reduce variation in interpretation, the technique used must be standardised where possible. The national aeromedical department shall ensure EEG recording facilities are to a high standard and that the tracings are read centrally. Recommended procedure a b 20 leads with 10/20 (international placement). The montage and machine settings shall be indicated on the tracing. 38 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) c Calibration is required at the beginning and end of each complete tracing. d Each montage recorded should include eyes open as well as closed. e There should be 2 3 minutes of hiperventilation. f Photic stimulation should be carried out in a darkned room with at least 10 exposures between 1 and 30 Hz flashes per second of 10 seconds duration starting with eyes open for 5 seconds followed by eye closure during the stimulus and thereafter for 5 seconds. Photic stimulation should start with 16 flashes per second, and then sequences between 1 to 21 flashes per second should be recorded as above, followed by flashes at 25 and 50 per second. g A minimum of 20 minutes of recording on a 16 channel machine (or equivalent) is required. h If a subjects falls asleep during the recording, it should be continued through the progressive phases of sleep, with intermittent arousal as appropriate. Interpretation of EEGs. There has been much discussion regarding the significance of various wave forms, particulary in predicting convulsive episodes epilepsy. There is general agreement that epileptiform paroxysmal phenomena ( epileptiform or seizure patterns spike-wave) the a photoconvulsive response and spike-and-wave complexes (2-4 Hz, irregular, generalised or focal) are significant and associated with an increased risk of epilepsy . Although such cases appear to be only 0.5% of apparently normal applicants, the published data indicates a an increased risk of convulsion epilepsy exceeding 1% per annum and therefore beyond above that acceptable for professional aircrew or solo private pilotage. A qualified private pilot, disqualified as above for Class 1 but with no significant history may be considered for Class 2 `OSL´. 8 DEFINITIONS Epileptiform pattern. Interpretive term. Applies to distinctive waves or complexes, distinguished from background activity, and resembling those recorded in a proportion of human subjects suffering from epileptic disorders and in animals rendered epileptic experimentally. Epileptiform patterns include spikes and sharp waves, occurring singly or in bursts lasting at most a few seconds. Comments: (1) This term refers to interictal paroxysmal activity and not to seizure patterns. (2) The probability of association with clinical epileptic disorders is variable, but there is a small though significant increased risk of epilepsy. Epileptic paroxysmal spike wave at 3Hz have been shown to be associated with transient diminution in cognitive function and should be regarded as seizures. Seizure pattern. Phenomenon consisting of repetitive EEG discharges with relatively abrupt onset and termination and characteristic pattern of evolution, lasting at least several seconds. The component waves or complexes vary in form, frequency and topography. They are generally rhytmic and frequently display increasing amplitude and decreasing frequency during the same episode. When focal in onset, they tend to spread subsequently to other areas. Comment: EEG seizure patterns unaccompanied by clinical epileptic manifestations detected by the recordist and/or reported by the patient should be referred to as subclinical´. (cf. epileptiform pattern.) Paroxysm. Phenomena with abrupt onset, rapid attainment of a maximum and sudden termination, distinguished from background activity. Comment: commonly used to refer to epileptiform patterns and seizure patterns ( cf. epileptiform pattern; seizure pattern, EEG.) if these consist of spike wave paroxysms, but not other paroxysmal slow wave activity which correlates less clearly with the predisposition to epilepsy. Spike. A transient, clearly distinguished from background activity, with pointed peak at conventional paper speeds and duration from 20 to under 70 ms, i.e. 1/50-1/14 s, approximately. Main component is generally negative relative to other areas. Amplitude is variable. Comments: (1) EEG spikes should be differentiated from sharp waves, i. e. transients having similar characteristics but longer durations. However, it is well to keep in mind that this distinction is largely arbitrary and serves primarily descriptive purposes. Practically, in ink written EEG records taken at 3 cm/s, spikes occupy 2 mm or less of paper width and sharp waves more than 2 mm.(2) EEG spikes should be held in clear contradistinction to the brief unit spikes recorded from single cells with microelectrode techniques. (cf. sharpe wave.) 3 Hz spike-and-slow-waves. Characteristic paroxysm consisting of a regular sequence of spike-andslow-wave complexes which: (1) repeat at 3-3.5 Hz ( measured during the first few seconds of the paroxysm ), (2) are bilateral in their onset and termination, generalised and usually of maximal amplitude over the frontal areas, (3) are approximately synchronous and symmetrical on the two sides of the head throughout the paroxysm. Amplitude is variable but can reach values of 1000 µV (1 mV). 39 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Photoconvulsive response. A generalised discharge of spikes or spike-wave activity consistently elicited by intermittent photic stimulation, which is autonomous occurring asynchronously with respect to the stimulus, and self sustaining outlasting the stimulus train by at least 100 msec. 40 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) IEM FCL 3, B & C – JAA MANUAL OF CIVIL AVIATION MEDICINE AVIATION OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY various changes to this section of the manual Manual, page 155 AVIATION OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY 1 INTRODUCTION Oto-rhino-laryngology is an important medical specialty in aviation medicine. It concerns organs involved in verbal communication and physical orientation. Further, the middle ears and paranasal sinuses are semi-closed cavities sensitive to pressure variations. Verbal communication between air traffic controllers and pilots is essential for flight safety. Disorientation is one of the important causes of major accidents and barotraumas of the middle ears and sinuses can cause considerable discomfort and distraction during aircraft descent and approach. 2 KEY TO THE EAR-NOSE-THROAT EXAMINATION PROCEDURES CLASS 1 MANUAL REFERENCE EXAMINATION A B C Pneumatic otoscopy √ √ √ 3.3 Impedance tympanometry Including valsalva manoeuvre √ – – 3.5 Pure tone audiometry √ √ – 4.3 Anterior rhinoscopy √ √ √ 6.3 Spoken voice test – – √ 4.6 On indication tests may include Pneumatic otoscopy 3.3 Speech audiometry Eog spontaneous & positional nystagmus Differential caloric test Or vestibular autorotation Posterior rhinoscopy Mirror or Fibre laryngoscopy A B C Comprehensive initial examination by, or under supervision of, a specialist in aviation otorhinolaryngology acceptable to the AMS Comprehensive renewal examination by, or under supervision of, a specialist in aviation otorhinolaryngology acceptable to the AMS Routine renewal examination (JAR–FCL 3.230 and 3.235 refer) 41 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Manual, page 155 CLASS 1 MANUAL REFERENCE EXAMINATION A B C Pneumatic otoscopy 3 3 3 3.3 Impedance tympanometry Including valsalva manoeuvre 3 – – 3.5 Pure tone audiometry 3 3 – 4.3 Anterior rhinoscopy 3 3 3 6.3 Spoken voice test – – 3 4.6 On indication tests may include Pneumatic otoscopy 3.3 Speech audiometry Eog spontaneous & positional nystagmus Differential caloric test Or vestibular autorotation Posterior rhinoscopy Mirror or Fibre laryngoscopy Manual, page 156 CLASS 2 EXAMINATION MANUAL REFERENCE A B Pneumatic otoscopy √ √ 3.3 Spoken voice test √ √ 4.6 Pure tone audiometry * On indication tests may include Pneumatic otoscopy 3.3 Impedance tympanometry Including valsalva manoeuvre Speech audiometry Barany chair test A B * At first issuance by an authorised medical examiner Subsequent renewal examinations When an instrument rating is to be added – for frequency see JAR–FCL 3.350 and 3.355 42 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.3 JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) Manual, page 158 In order to obtain a three-dimensional impression of the ear drum and in order to reveal atrophic and sclerotic areas, a pneumatic otoscopy must be performed may be indicated. For that purpose, the otoscope should be mounted with a balloon and a speculum capable of occluding the lumen of the cartilaginous part of the canal. The pressure of the air, trapped in this air-tight system, can be varied by gently squeezing the balloon. This results in discrete movements of the tympanic membrane, which can be observed through the otoscope. If the membrane does not move, it may be for one of the following five reasons: i) the system is not air tight, ii) there is a perforation, iii) there is a negative pressure in the middle ear, iv) the middle ear is fluid filled or v) the middle ear is atelectatic. Manual, page 159 Toynbee’s manoeuvre is performed by letting the examinee swallow while he closes his nostrils and mouth. Very often, the ear drum will become displaced inwards due to the suction effect on the Eustachian tube. A negative result of this test does not always indicate a tubal dysfunction. If these two tests are implemented in the physical examination, one has to accept that a negative result is not interpretable. A pragmatic solution of this problem is to accept all Class 1 applicants with no history of chronic or recurrent tubo-tympanic disease if they present themselves with a normal pneumatic otoscopy and with a normal impedance tympanometry (see below). Class 2 applicants do not require impedance tympanometry to be undertaken. Manual, page 160: An objective Valsalva’s test can be performed by means of impedance tympanometry. Applicants not controlling or understanding the Valsalva technique, when explained to them may still have a normal tubal function. The final judgement of the tubal function should not be based on the momentary performance by the Valsalva’s test alone, but on evidence of chronic or recurrent tubal dysfunction obtained by a pneumatic otoscopy followed by an a positive history. iImpedance tympanometry or pneumatic otoscopy may be indicated. Manual, page 250: Last paragraph of the introduction: Single-drug therapy may in certain cases be tolerated for flying personnel but multipledrug therapy which may multiply adverse effects requires the greatest circumspection. It is possible that new therapeutic agents will become available that offer significant advantages in treatment and whose use in aircrew could be delayed by normal JAR amendment process. If such agents are considered by the JAA-FCL MSC to be appropriate for use by aircrew, with due consideration to aeromedical and safety aspects, their use may be introduced by Temporary Guidance Leaflet (TGL) procedure, followed by the normal amendment process. 43 1 July 2000 4. NPA-FCL-14.4 (Flight Engineers) NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR–FCL 4.001 Definitions and Abbreviations (See IEM FCL 4.001) Addition of a new definition Co-pilot: “Co-pilot” means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the operational regulations under which the flight is conducted, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating. . 1 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR–FCL 4.005 Applicability Addition of new paragraph (a)(5) (a) General (5) A licence issued on the basis of training performed outside a JAA Member State, except training done according to JAR-FCL 4.055(a)(1), shall have an entry to limit the privileges to aircraft registered in the State of licence issue. 2 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 4.005 Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR-FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State. Adjustment to paragraph 2, column 4 (addition of an asterix) 2. Instructor ratings conversion National rating, authorisation or privileges held (1) TRI(E) Experience Any further JAA requirements Replacement JAA rating (2) As required under JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) for the relevant rating (3) Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority a knowledge of the relevant parts of JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineer) and JAR-OPS as set out in AMC FCL 4.005 & 4.015. (4) TRI(E) * * JAA Member States’ instructors fulfilling all the above replacement requirements, but unable to obtain relevant JAR-FCL licence/rating(s) due to present implementation status of their State of licence issue, may be accepted to instruct for JAR-FCL licence and/or ratings. 3 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) AMC FCL 4.005 & 4.015 Knowledge requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence on the basis of a national licence issued by a JAA Member State or for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States Addition of the titles of paragraphs in Subpart H JAR–FCL Part 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR–FCL SUBPART H - INSTRUCTORS - 4.300 - Instruction - General - 4.305 - Instructor ratings and authorisation – Purposes - 4.310 - Instructor ratings – General - 4.315 - Instructor ratings – Period of validity - 4.360 - Flight engineer instructor rating (TRI(E)) - Privileges - 4.365 - TRI(E) – Requirements - 4.370 - TRI(E) rating – Revalidation and renewal - 4.405 - Synthetic flight instructor authorisation (SFI(E)) – Privileges - 4.410 - SFI(E) – Requirements - 4.415 - SFI(E) – Revalidation and renewal - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.365 - Course for the type rating instructor rating for Flight Engineers (TRI(E)) 4 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR-FCL 4.015 Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Adjustment to para (b); adjustment to para (c) - this has been split into two different sub-paragraphs (b) Licences issued by non-JAA States (1) A licence issued by a non-JAA State may be rendered valid at the discretion of the Authority of a JAA Member State for use on aircraft registered in that JAA Member State in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.015. Holders of a professional pilot’s licence wishing to exercise professional privileges, shall comply with the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 4.015. (c) Conversion of a flight engineer licence issued by a non-JAA State. (1) A flight engineer licence issued by a nonJAA State may be converted to a JAR–FCL licence provided that an arrangement exists between the JAA and the non-JAA State. This arrangement shall be established on the basis of reciprocity of licence acceptance and shall ensure that an equivalent level of safety exists between the training and testing requirements of the JAA and the non-JAA State. Any arrangement entered into will be reviewed periodically, as agreed by the non-JAA State and the JAA. A licence converted according to such an arrangement shall have an entry indicating the non-JAA State upon which the conversion is based. Other Member States shall not be obliged to accept any such licence. 5 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR-FCL 4.016 Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA State Adjustment to this paragraph, split into (a) and (b) (a) An applicant for a JAR-FCL licence and IR, if applicable, already holding at least an equivalent licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 by a non-JAA State shall meet all the requirements of JAR-FCL, except that the requirements of course duration, number of lessons and specific training hours may be reduced. The Authority may be guided as to the credits to be granted on the basis of a recommendation from an appropriate training organisation. (b) The holder of a F/EL who meets the experience requirements of Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.015 may be credited with the requirements to undego approved training prior to undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and the skill test, if that licence contains a valid type rating for the aeroplane to be used for the F/E skill test. 6 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR–FCL 4.026 Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 New JAR paragraph from JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) (a) A pilot shall not operate an aeroplane carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or a flight simulator of the aeroplane type/class to be used, in the preceding 90 days; and (b) The holder of a licence that does not include a valid instrument rating (aeroplane) shall not act as pilot-incommand of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the takeoffs and landings required by JAR-FCL 1.026(a) above has been carried out by night. 7 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR–FCL 4.030 Arrangements for testing Adjustment to paragraph (c) (c) Notification of examiners to organisations and registered facilities. flying training (1) The Authority will maintain a list of all examiners it has authorised stating for which roles they are authorised. The list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within the JAA Member State. The Authority will determine by which means the examiners will be allocated to the skill test. notify each approved flying training organisation or registered facility of the examiners which it has designated for the conduct of skill tests for the issue of private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings at that flying training organisation or registered facility. The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A). (2) The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of the skill test for the issue of a flight engineer licence. 8 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 4.075 Specifications for flight crew licences Adjustment to the cover page STANDARD JAA LICENCE FORMAT Cover page Authority name and logo (English and national language) Requirements JOINT AVIATION AUTHORITIES (English only) Size of each page shall be not less than one eighth A4 FLIGHT CREW LICENCE (English and national language) Issued in accordance with ICAO and JAR-FCL standards (English and national language) 9 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Page 3 II Titles of licences, date of initial issue and country code Abbreviations used will be as used in JAR–FCL (e.g. PPL(H), F/E(A), etc.) Standard date format is to be used, i.e. day / month / year in full (e.g., 21/01/1995) IX Validity: This licence is to be re-issued not later than ................... The privileges of the licence shall be exercised only if the holder has a valid medical certificate for the required privilege. By the application of JAR–FCL 4.015(a)(1), the licence holder may is entitled to exercise licence privileges on aircraft registered in any Member State of the Joint Aviation Authorities subject to acceptance by that Member State. A document containing a photo shall be carried for the purposes of identification of the licence holder. Re-issue is to be not later than 5 years from the date of initial issue shown in item II. XII Radiotelephony privileges: The holder of this licence has demonstrated competence to operate R/T equipment on board aircraft in English (other languages specified). XIII Remarks: This document is not specified, but a passport would suffice when outside the State of licence issue. All additional licensing information required by ICAO, EC Directive / Regulations or JARs to be entered here 10 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 4.160 Use of English Language (See JAR-FCL 4.160) Adjustment to paragraph 1(b) 1. An applicant for a F/EL must as a crew member in a multi-pilot operated aeroplane: (a) ... (b) having passed an IR, ATPL skill test or proficiency or the skill test or proficiency check in accordance with JAR-FCL 4.170 during which the two-way radiotelephony communication is performed in English; or (b) (c) having passed a specific ... 11 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.220 List of Type of aeroplane See JAR-FCL 4.220(c) AMC FCL 4.220 becomes Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.220. The text on this page has been aligned with the text from P NPA-FCL-14.1 (Aeroplane) This Appendix includes aeroplanes type certificated in JAA Member States and does not include: (i) aeroplanes not type certificated in accordance with FAR/JAR 23, FAR/JAR 23 Commuter Category, FAR/JAR 25, BCAR or AIR 2051; (ii) aeroplanes type certificated in a JAA Member State under special registration such as military, ex-military, experimental or vintage aeroplanes; Aeroplanes not listed may be entered into a JAR-FCL licence, but the rating privileges are restricted to aeroplanes on the register of the State of rating issue. Explanation of table (refer to JAR-FCL 4.235 (c): a. the symbol (D) in column 3 indicates that differences training is required when moving between variants or other types of aeroplane which are separated by the use of a line in column 2; b. although the licence endorsement (column 4) contains all aeroplanes listed in column 2, the required familiarisation or differences training has still to be completed; c. the specific variant on which the skill test for the type rating has been completed will be recorded according to JAR-FCL 4.080 (to be developed). INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 12 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) LIST OF AEROPLANE TYPES Requiring a Flight Engineer * 2 1 Manufacturer 4 3 A/C Certification Licence Endorsement Aerospatiale/BAC Concorde Concorde Aero Spaceline 377 SGTF Super Guppy Super Guppy A300 - B1 - B2 series - B4 series - C4-200 series - F4-200 series Airbus A300 A300 A300-600ST - 300-600ST (Beluga) B707 - 100 series - 300 series - 400 series B707 B727 -100 series -200 series Boeing B727 B747 - 100 series - 200 series - 300 series (D) B747 100-300-S.P. - S.P. Douglas-3A-S1C3G DC3 DC4 DC4 DC6 series DC6 DC7C DC7 DC8-33 DC8-50, 60, 70 series DC8 DC10 series DC10 Lockheed L382 G Hercules Lockeed L188 Electra Boeing/McDonnell-Douglas - Series A (D) L188 Electra - Series C Short Brothers L 1011 series L 1011 SC5 Belfast Belfast * Multi-pilot aeroplanes may be operated with a F/E as an additional member of the flight crew. 13 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR-FCL 4.240 Type ratings - Requirements Addition of new paragraph (a)(4) (a) General (1) ... (2) ... (3) ... (4) A type rating contained in a licence issued by a non-JAA State may be transferred to a JAR-FCL licence, subject to the appropriate proficiency check, provided the applicant is in current flying practice and has not less than 500 hours flying experience on that type, provided JAR-FCL 4.250 is met. 14 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 4.240 Contents of the F/E Type rating/Training/Skill Test and proficiency check on aeroplanes requiring a minimum crew of three Some text amendments in this appendix 1 The following symbols mean: F/E = Trained for the issue of a type rating as applicable. X= Flight Simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available, otherwise an aircraft aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure except where indicated. N/A= Not applicable for flight engineers. 2 The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (→ → ). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A FS FTD OTD = = = = Aeroplane Flight Simulator Flight Training Device Other Training Devices 3 Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test/ proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise. 4 A flight simulator shall be used for practical training if the simulator forms part of an approved type-rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (a) the qualification of the flight simulator as set out in JAR-STD; (b) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner; (c) the amount of line-orientated simulator training provided on the course; (d) the qualifications and previous line operating experience of the pilot under training; and (e) the amount of supervised line flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating. INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 15 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD SECTION 1 1. Flight preparation 1.1 Performance calculation FTD FS Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed F/E 1.2 Aeroplane ext. visual inspect.; location of each item and purpose of inspection F/E 1.3 Cockpit inspection 1.4 Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies. 1.5 Taxiing in compliance with air traffic control or instructions of instructor. 1.6 Before take-off checks A Instructors initials when training completed M aircraf t only M F/E M F/E F/E F/E M SECTION 2 2. Take-offs 2.1 Normal take offs with different flap settings, include. expedited take off. 2.2 Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or immediately after becoming airborne. 2.3 Cross wind take-off (A, if practicable) 2.4 Take-off at maximum takeoff mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) 2.5 Take-offs with simulated engine failure 2.5.1 shortly after reaching V2, or F/E F/E N/A N/A N/A F/E N/A N/A N/A F/E F/E 16 M 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 2.5.2 between V1 and V2, or 2.5.3 as close as possible after V1, when V1 and V2 or V1 and VR are identical. 2.6 2.5.4 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed before reaching V1, giving due consideration to aeroplane characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction, brake heat energy, and any other factors that might adversely affect safety. SECTION 3 3. Flight Manoeuvres and Procedures 3.1 Turns with and without spoilers. 3.2 Tuck under and Mach buffets after reaching the critical Mach number, and other specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) 3.3 Normal operation of systems and controls engineer’s panel. FTD FS A F/E X F/E X F/E X Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed M FS Only M FS Only M F/E F/E X An aircraft may not be used for this exercis e F/E M 17 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS 3.4 Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: 3.4.0 Engine (if necessary propeller) 3.4.01 Pneumatics 3.4.1 Pressurisation and airconditioning 3.4.2 Pitot/static system Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal operations items shall be selected from 3.4 to 3.5 inclusive. M F/E F/E F/E F/E 3.4.3 Fuel system F/E 3.4.4 Electrical system 3.4.5 Hydraulic system F/E F/E 3.4.6 Flight control and Trimsystem 3.4.7 Anti- and de-icing system, Glare shield heating 3.4.8 Autopilot/Flight director F/E 3.4.9 Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices. 3.4.10 Ground proximity warning system, weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder. 3.4.11 Radios, navigation equipment, instruments, flight management system. 3.4.12 Landing gear and brakesystem. 3.4.13 Slat and flap system. A Instructors initials when training completed F/E F/E F/E F/E F/E F/E F/E 3.4.14 Auxiliary power unit. F/E 3.5 TCAS F/E 18 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 3.6 Abnormal and emergency procedures: 3.6.1 Fire drills e.g. Engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires including evacuation. 3.6.2 Smoke control and removal . 3.6.3 Engine failures, shut-down and restart at a safe height. 3.6.4 Fuel dumping (simulated). FTD FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from 3.6 to 3.6.8 inclusive. M F/E F/E F/E F/E FS only 3.6.5 Windshear at Take off/landing. 3.6.6 Simulated cabin pressure failure/Emergency descent. 3.6.7 Incapacitation of flight crew member. 3.6.8 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane Flight Manual. 3.7 Steepturns with 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right. 3.8 Early recognition and counter measures on approaching stall (up to activation of stall warning device) in take-off configuration, (flaps in take-off position), in cruising flight configuration and in landing configuration (flaps in landing position, gear extended) 3.8.1 Recovery from full stall or after activation of stall warning device in climb, cruise and approach configuration. F/E X FS only F/E F/E F/E N/A N/A N/A F/E F/E F/E 19 X 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 3.9 Instrument procedures. FTD FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A N/A N/A At least one approach including a full landing and one missed approach N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A flight F/E 3.9.1 Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions. 3.9.2 Holding procedures. Examiner’s initials when test completed F/E 3.9.3 ILS approaches down to a DH not less than 60 m (200 ft) 3.9.3.1 manually, without flight director. 3.9.3.2 manually, with flight director. 3.9.3.3 automatically, autopilot. F/E F/E F/E with F/E 3.9.3.4 manually, with one engine simulated in-operative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach from before passing the outer marker (OM) until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the NDB or VOR approach as described in 3.9.4. The goaround shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height (OCH/A), however, not later than reaching a minimum descent height (MDH/A) of 500 ft above runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.9.3.4. F/E M N/A 20 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) F/EL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD 3.9.4 NDB or VOR/LOCapproach down to the MDH/A 3.9.5 Circling approach under following conditions: FTD FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed F/E F/E a) approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centerline from final approach used in item a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude; Remark: if a) and b) are not possible due to ATC reasons a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed. SECTION 4 4. Missed Approach Procedures 4.1 Go-around with all engines operating after an ILS approach on reaching decision height. 4.2 Other missed approach procedures. 4.3 Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative after an ILS approach on reaching decision height (see also 3.9.3.4). 4.4 Rejected landing at 15 m (50ft) above runway threshold and go-around. F/E M F/E M F/E M F/E M 21 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD SECTION 5 5. Landings 5.1 Normal landings also after an ILS approach with transition to visual flight on reaching DH. 5.2 Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position. FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed F/E F/E 5.3 Cross wind landings (A, if practicable). X an aircraf t may not be used for this exerci se N/A N/A N/A F/E 5.4 Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats. F/E 5.5 Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative. F/E M 5.6 Landing with two engines inoperative: - Aeroplanes with three engines: the centre engine and one outboard engine as far as practicable according to data of the AFM. F/E X M FS only Aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side. General remarks: Proposed sequence for skill test 3.9.4. 3.9.3. 3.9.3.4. 3.9.5. 4.3 5.5./5.6. Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 feet (60m), i.e. Cat II/III operations. (Refer to Subpart E, paragraph 1.180) 22 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed SECTION 6 6.Additionnal authorisation for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1 Aborted take-off at minimum authorised RVR. F/E X an aircraft may not be used for this exercis e M 6.2 ILS Approaches in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH using flight guidance system. Standard procedures of crew coordination (task sharing, call out procedures, mutual surveillance, information, and support) shall be observed. F/E 23 M 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) ATPL/TYPE-RATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK PRACTICAL TRAINING Manoeuvres/Procedures including MCC (including Multi-Crew Cooperation) OTD FTD FS A Instructors initials when training completed Chkd in FS A Examiner’s initials when test completed 6.3 Go-around after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training also shall include go-around due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aeroplane deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, and ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH and, go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure. Special attention shall be given to go-around procedures with pre-calculated manual or automatic go-around attitude guidance. 6.4 Landing(s). with visual reference established at decision height following an instrument approach. Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. F/E M F/E M Note: CAT II/III operations shall be accomplished in accordance with Operational Rules. INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK 24 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(a) Theoretical knowledge instruction requirements for skill test/proficiency checking for class/type ratings Amendments to paragraph 2 with addition of part of AMC FCL 4.261(a), and 3, 2 The theoretical knowledge instruction shall cover the syllabus in AMC FCL 4.261(a), as appropriate to the aeroplane class/type concerned with the following content: (a) Aeroplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions - (b) Limitations - (c) General limitations Engine limitations System limitations Minimum equipment list Performance, flight planning and monitoring (d) Performance Flight planning Flight monitoring Load, balance and servicing (e) Dimensions Engine including auxiliary power unit Fuel system Pressurisation and air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic systems Landing gear Flight controls, lift devices Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment Load and balance Servicing on ground Emergency procedures (f) Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) (g) Special requirements for “glass cockpit” aeroplanes - (h) Airborne equipment, procedures and limitations Electronic flight instrument systems (e.g. EFIS, EICAS) Flight management systems (FMS) 3. For the initial issue of type ratings for multi-pilot aeroplanes the written or computer based examination shall normally at least comprise one hundred multiple choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of the syllabus. The pass mark shall be 75% in each of the mark subjects of the syllabus. 25 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) AMC FCL 4.261(a) Syllabus of theoretical knowledge instruction for type ratings for single-engine and multiengine aeroplanes See JAR–FCL 4.261(a) See Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 4.261(a) The first 8 paragraphs have been deleted from this AMC and have been added to Appendix 1 to JARFCL 4.261(a). The rest remains an AMC and is not indicated here. CONTENTS 1 Aeroplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 Dimensions Engine including auxiliary power unit Fuel system Pressurisation and air-conditioning Ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent Hydraulic systems Landing gear Flight controls, lift devices Electrical power supply Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment Emergency equipment 2 Limitations 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 General limitations Engine limitations System limitations Minimum equipment list 3 Performance, flight planning and monitoring 3.1 3.2 3.3 Performance Flight planning Flight monitoring 4 Load, balance and servicing 4.1 4.2 Load and balance Servicing on ground 5 Emergency procedures 6 Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m) 6.1 Airborne equipment, procedures and limitations 7 Special requirements for “glass cockpit” aeroplanes 7.1 Electronic flight instrument systems (e.g. EFIS, EICAS) 8 Flight management systems (FMS) 26 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (Aeroplane) (See JAR-FCL 4.261(d)) (See AMC FCL 4.261(d)) New Appendix, coming from AMC FCL 4.261(d) 1 The aim of the course is to become proficient in multi-crew co-operation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes under IFR and, for that purpose, to ensure that: a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training shall be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 3 The theoretical knowledge syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 4.261(d). An approved MCC theoretical knowledge course shall comprise not less than 25 hours. FLYING TRAINING 4 The flying training syllabus is set out in AMC FCL 4.261(d). CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION 5 On completion of the course, the applicant may be issued with a certificate of satisfactory completion of the course. CROSS-CREDITING 6 A holder of a certificate of completion of MCC training on aeroplanes shall be exempted from the requirement to complete the theoretical knowledge syllabus as set out in AMC FCL 4.261(d). 27 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) AMC FCL 4.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (Aeroplane) See JAR–FCL 4.261(d) See Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d) Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d). IEM FCL 4.261(d) has been included in this AMC. Appendix 1 to AMC FCL 4.261(d) remains unchanged and is therefore not reproduced here. 1 The aim of the course is to become proficient in multi-crew co-operation (MCC) in order to operate safely multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes under IFR. INSTRUCTORS 2 Instructors for MCC training should be thoroughly familiar with human factors and crew resource management (CRM). They should be current with the latest developments in human factors training and CRM techniques. MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION TRAINING The objectives of MCC training are optimum decision making, communication, division of 13 tasks, use of checklists, mutual supervision, teamwork, and support throughout all phases of flight under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions. The training emphasises the development of nontechnical skills applicable to working in a multi-crew environment. The training should focus on teaching students the basics on the functioning of crew members 24 as teams in a multi-crew environment, not simply as a collection of technically competent individuals. Furthermore, the course should provide students with opportunities to practice the skills that are necessary to be effective team leaders and members. This requires training exercises which include students as crew members in the PF and PNF roles. Students should be made familiar with inter-personal interfaces and how to make best use of 35 crew co-operation techniques and their personal and leadership styles in a way that fosters crew effectiveness. Students should be made aware that their behaviour during normal circumstances can have a powerful impact on crew functioning during high workload and stressful situations. Research studies strongly suggest that behavioural changes in any environment cannot be 46 accomplished in a short period even if the training is very well designed. Trainees need time, awareness, practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement to learn lessons that will endure. In order to be effective, multi-crew co-operation training should be accomplished in several phases spread over a period. 7 In principle, the purpose of crew co-ordination procedures is to achieve the following aims. a. The pilot-in-command fulfils his managing and decision-making functions irrespective whether he is PF or PNF. b. The tasks of PF and PNF are clearly specified and distributed in such a manner that the PF can direct his full attention to the handling and control of the aircraft. c. Co-operation is effected in an orderly manner appropriate to the normal, abnormal or emergency situations encountered. d. Mutual supervision, information and support is ensured at all times. BASIC MULTI-CREW CO-OPERATION COURSE 58 The contents of the basic MCC course should cover theoretical knowledge training, practice and feedback in: 28 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 a. interfaces – b. listening conflict resolution mediating critique (pre-flight analyses and planning, ongoing-review, postflight) team building effective and clear communication during flight – – – – – e. managerial and supervisory skills assertiveness barriers cultural influence PF and PNF roles professionalism team responsibility personality, attitude and motivation – – – – – d. examples of software, hardware, environment and liveware mismatches in practice leadership/”followership” and authority – – – – – – – c. JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) listening feedback standard phraseologies assertiveness participation crew co-ordination procedures – – – flight techniques and cockpit procedures standard phraseologies discipline 69 The use of checklists is of special importance for an orderly and safe conduct of the flights. Different philosophies have been developed for the use of checklists. Whichever philosophy is used depends on the complexity of the aircraft concerned, the situation presented, the flight crew composition and their operating experience and the operator's procedures as laid down in the Flight Operations Manual. 7 10 Mutual supervision, information and support. a. Any action in handling the aircraft should be performed by mutual supervision. The pilot responsible for the specific action or task (PF or PNF) should be advised when substantial deviations (flight path, aircraft configuration etc.) are observed. b. Call-out procedures are essential, especially during take-off and approach, to indicate progress of the flight, systems status etc. c. Operation of aircraft systems, setting of radios and navigation equipment etc. should not be performed without demand by the PF or without information to the PF and his confirmation. The contents of paragraphs 3 and 4 can best be practised by performing the exercises in IEM 8 11 FCL 1.261(d) in simulated commercial air transport operations. Practice and feedback of MCC with regard to the L-L (liveware-liveware) interface should also 9 12 make provision for students for self and peer critique in order to improve communication, decision making and leadership skills. This phase is best accomplished through the use of flight simulators and 29 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) video equipment. Video feedback is particularly effective because it allows participants to view themselves from a third-person perspective; this promotes acceptance of one's weak areas which encourages attitude and behavioural changes. EXERCISES 10 The exercises should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment. The instruction should cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation including documentation, and computation of take-off performance data; b. pre-flight checks including radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; c. before take-off checks including powerplant checks, and take-off briefing by PF; d. normal take-offs with different flap settings, tasks of PF and PNF, call-outs; e. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass; engine failure after V1; f. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems, use of checklists; g. selected emergency procedures to include engine failure and fire, smoke control and removal, windshear during take-off and landing, emergency descent, incapacitation of a flight crew member; h. early recognition of and reaction on approaching stall in differing aircraft configurations; i. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and automatic pilot, one engine simulated inoperative approaches, non-precision and circling approaches, approach briefing by PF, setting of navigation equipment, call-out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; j. go-arounds; normal and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. k. landings, normal, crosswind and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. Where MCC training is combined with training for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane, the exercises 2(a), (b), (c), (f), (g) and (j) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. 30 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) Reinforcement 11 13 No matter how effective the classroom curriculum, interpersonal drills, LOFT exercises, and feedback techniques are, a single exposure during the multi-crew co-operation course for the initial issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating will be insufficient. The attitudes and influences which contribute to ineffective crew co-ordination are ubiquitous and may develop over a pilot's lifetime. Thus it will be necessary that the training of non-technical skills will be an integral part of all recurrent training for revalidation of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating as well as of the training for the issue of further multi-pilot type ratings. 31 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) IEM FCL 4.261(d) Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) See JAR–FCL 4.261(d) This IEM has been incorporated into AMC FCL 4.261(d)) 1 Multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is set out in AMC FCL 4.261(d). This IEM gives guidelines for the exercises that may be used in the MCC training. 2 The exercises should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport environment. The instruction should cover the following areas: a. pre-flight preparation including documentation, and computation of take-off performance data; b. pre-flight checks including radio and navigation equipment checks and setting; c. before take-off checks including powerplant checks, and take-off briefing by PF; d. normal take-offs with different flap settings, tasks of PF and PNF, call-outs; e. rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum take-off mass; engine failure after V1; f. normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems, use of checklists; g. selected emergency procedures to include engine failure and fire, smoke control and removal, windshear during take-off and landing, emergency descent, incapacitation of a flight crew member; h. early recognition of and reaction on approaching stall in differing aircraft configurations; i. instrument flight procedures including holding procedures; precision approaches using raw navigation data, flight director and automatic pilot, one engine simulated inoperative approaches, nonprecision and circling approaches, approach briefing by PF, setting of navigation equipment, call-out procedures during approaches; computation of approach and landing data; j. go-arounds; normal and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. k. landings, normal, crosswind and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height/altitude. Where MCC training is combined with training for an initial type rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane, the exercises 2(a), (b), (c), (f), (g) and (j) may be conducted in a FTD as part of an approved course. 32 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) AMC FCL 4.365 Course for the type rating instructor rating for Flight Engineer (TRI(E)) See JAR-FCL 4.365 Part of this AMC is now in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.365, therefore one paragraph has been deleted in this AMC Amendment to paragraph 6 of Part 2 COURSE OBJECTIVE 1 The course should be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction in order to instruct for any multi-pilot aeroplane type rating for which the applicant is qualified (see JAR–FCL 4.365). COURSE ADMINISTRATION 2 Each applicant should have a written personal progress report maintained throughout the course and each applicant’s teaching abilities should be assessed as satisfactory by the TRI(E) designated by the Authority for this purpose before the TRI(E) rating is issued. PART 2 TECHNICAL TRAINING Aeroplane (not applicable for applicants for SFI(E) authorisation or zero flight time training by a TRI(E)) 6 a. familiarisation with controls during outside checks; b. c. d. e. f. g. use of checklist, setting of radios and navigation aids, starting engines; taxiing; take-off; engine failure during take-off shortly after V 2, after reaching climb out attitude; other emergency procedures (if necessary); instrument approach to required minimum DH, manual one engine out during approach and landing or go around; one engine simulated inoperative go around from required minimum DH; and one engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing. h. i. 33 1 July 2000 NPA-FCL-14.4 JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) JAR-FCL 4.415 SFI(E) Revalidation and renewal Addition of new paragraph (b)(4) (b) If the authorisation has lapsed the applicant shall have: (1) ... (2) ... (3) ... (4) have completed a proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.240 on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. 34 1 July 2000 JAR-FCL 1 - NPA-FCL 14.1 (Aeroplane) JAR-FCL 2 - NPA-FCL 14.2 (Helicopter) JAR-FCL 3 - NPA-FCL 14.3 (Medical) JAR-FCL 4 - NPA-FCL 14.4 (Flight Engineers) EXPLANATORY NOTE INTRODUCTION 1. NPA-FCL 14 contains the items which have been modified, developed and agreed within the FCL Committee during the last year. As a result the FCL Committee considers it necessary to consult on proposal for amendment to the JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane), JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter), JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) and JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers). 2. These NPAs embrace the items covered by the above and comprise two components: (a) This Explanatory Note containing a justification or comment on each NPA proposal; and, (b) The proposed ‘package’ of amendments to the existing material in JAR-FCL 1, 2, 3 and 4, and some new text necessarily developed. It contains also new text in section 1 as a result of the reclassification of section 2 material as decided by the JAA Committee due to the proposed changes in JAR 11. In light of this decision the FCL Committee reconsidered the contents of Section 2 of the JAR-FCL documents, making a distinction between requirements and guidance material. The parts of section 2 which have been moved to section 1 have been considered essential for safety and for the free circulation of pilots amongst JAA Member States. As a result of this exercise the following AMCs have been completely or partly re-arranged as Appendices : In JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane) : - AMC FCL 1.215 AMC FCL 1.220 AMC FCL 1.261(a AMC FCL 1.261(d) AMC FCL 1.340 AMC FCL 1.365 AMC FCL 1.380 - AMC FCL 1.395 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.215. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.220. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(a). Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d) Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.365. Appendix 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.380. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.395. Explanatory Note - 1 NPA-FCL 14 - AMC FCL 1.425 AMC FCL 1.470 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.470. In JAR-FCL 2 (Helicopter) : - AMC FCL 2.261(a) AMC FCL 2.261(d) AMC FCL 2.340 AMC FCL 2.365 AMC FCL 2.395 AMC FCL 2.425 AMC FCL 2.470 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(a). Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(d). Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.365. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.395. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.470. JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) : 3. AMC FCL 4.220 AMC FCL 4.261(a) AMC FCL 4.261(d) AMC FCL 4.220 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.220. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(a). Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d). Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.220. The proposals included in this NPA have been prepared by the relevant (sub)-committees and endorsed by the JAA FCL committee. It is advised that these proposals should be incorporated in JAR-FCL 1, 2, 3 and 4 on 1 January 2002 at the latest. PROPOSED AMENDMENTS 4. This NPA consists of 4 parts, and each part is dedicated to a specific JAR-FCL document. The subdivision is as follows : - 5. 6. NPA-FCL 14.1 miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 1 NPA-FCL 14.2 miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 2 NPA-FCL 14.3 miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 3 NPA-FCL 14.4 miscellaneous amendments to JAR-FCL 4 Paragraph 7 onwards incorporates the justification for each of the proposals contained in the NPA ‘package’ material, and is sub-divided into the subparts that are affected. For ease of reference, each amendment proposal in this Explanatory Note is detailed in a sequential order, i.e. Section 1 - requirement number and appendix (if applicable), followed by the associated Section 2 material - AMC or IEM as applicable. The proposals themselves are grouped by subpart and amendments and new text is in bold italics and text proposed to be deleted is shown by strikethrough. Explanatory Note - 2 NPA-FCL 14 JUSTIFICATIONS NPA-FCL 14.1 (Aeroplane) 7. SUBPART A 7.1 JAR–FCL 1.001 : Definitions and Abbreviations The definition of co-pilot in JAR-1 is proposed to be changed. The text of JAR-FCL 1.080 paragraph (c)(2), recording of co-pilot flight time, has been used as basis for the agreed definition. 7.2 JAR-FCL 1.005 : Applicability The FCL Committee agreed to incorporate a new paragraph (a)(6), with the intention to reflect in the licence that training had been performed outside the JAA States. This will indicate that the training has not been performed in accordance with JAR-FCL and mutual recognition of these licences is at the discretion of the JAA Member State concerned. 7.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.005 : Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR-FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State New text was introduced relating to item 2 (Instructors) of this Appendix to allow JAA Member States’ instructor to instruct for JAR-FCL licences and/or ratings without a JAR-FCL licence/rating(s). This to facilitate the transition to JAR-FCL requisites. 7.4 AMC FCL 1.005 & 1.015 : Knowledge requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence on the basis of a national licence issued by a JAA Member State or for the validation of pilot licences of nonJAA States References to JAR-FCL 1 Subpart H paragraphs and appendices have been introducted in order to cover the knowledge requirements, as indicated in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.005 paragraph 2, for instructors whising to replace their national instructor rating to a JAR-FCL rating. Explanatory Note - 3 NPA-FCL 14 7.5 JAR-FCL 1.015 : Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) have been amended, this in order to cover the introduction of a new paragraph related with the validation of PPL/IR in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015. The words professional and IR have been added to paragraph(c)(1) to emphasise the introduction of a new paragraph (c)(2) containing a reference to the requirements for the conversion of a PPL. A new paragraph (c)(2) has been introduced with the reference to the new developed Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.015, this appendix contains the requirements for the conversion of a PPL issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL licence. 7.6 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.015 : Minimum requirements for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States The reference to “according to JAR-OPS” in paragraph (2)(f) column (3)(b) has been deleted, because commercial air transport operations when mentioned in JAR-FCL shall be in accordance with the JAR-OPS requirements. The FCL Committee agreed that it was necessary to introduce a new requirement containing the minimum requirements for the validation of PPL with IR of non-JAA Member States. Therefore the new paragraphs (3)(a) through (e) have been developed, and incorporated into this Appendix. 7.7 Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.015 : Conversion of a PPL issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL PPL When discussing JAR-FCL 1.015(c) and the arrangement, the FCL Committee agreed that for PPL this procedure was not needed and therefore agreed to requirements for a conversion of a PPL. 7.8 JAR-FCL 1.016 : Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA Member State Since it was considered that a pilot with a large experience should not be expected to undergo further approved training before undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and skill test, the decision was taken to revise this paragraph. In addition the licence holder shall Explanatory Note - 4 NPA-FCL 14 contain already a valid multi-pilot type rating for the aeroplane to be used for the ATPL skill test. 7.9 JAR–FCL 1.026 : Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 Deletion of paragraph (b) due to the incorporation of the reference to co-pilot in paragraph (a). The FCL Committee considered that there was no difference between operate an aeroplane and served at the flight controls for FCL purposes. Paragraph (c) has been renumbered to (b) and editorially re-arranged. 7.10 JAR–FCL 1.030 :Arrangements for testing It was agreed to re-arrange the wording of paragraph (c) in order to highlight that the Authority will establish a list of authorised examiners and that this list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within that JAA member State. It is up to the Authority to determine by which means the examiners are allocated to the skill test. 7.11 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.050 : Crediting of theoretical knowledge – Bridge instruction and examination syllabus In order to provide introductory text to this Appendix and to set out the requisites for the issue of a PPL(A) based on a helicopter licence, paragraph 1 and 2 has been added. 7.12 JAR-FCL 1.055 : Training organisations and registered Paragraph (a)(2) has been amended as a subsequence of previous NPA consultations and the discussions in the FCL Committee and JAA Committee. It was acknowledged that the place of business requirement in the JAR-FCL system is intended to define the jurisdiction of a JAA Member State and the competence of that JAA Member States’ Authority to grant an approval to a FTO and/or TRTO. In this perspective it is of major importance to establish which Authority is responsible for the enforcement of JAR-FCL requirements and therefore adjacent to the requirement a corresponding Appendix has been developed (Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055). For this purpose, 2 ways have been created for the granting of an approval to FTOs wishing to offer training for licences and associated ratings whose principal place of business and registered office is located outside the JAA Member States. Option (1), a bilateral arrangement should be developed between the JAA and non-JAA Authority in which the FTO has its principal place of business in order to define the participation of that non-JAA Authority in the approval process and in the regulatory oversight. Explanatory Note - 5 NPA-FCL 14 Option (2), application of Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055 in which the approval procedure, jurisdiction and the mode of operation of that FTO is specified. 7.13 Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 1.055 : Flying Training Organisations for pilot licences and ratings A new sentence has been introduced in paragraph 11 with the aim to combine the positions of Head of Training and Chief Flight Instructor or Chief Flight Instructor and Chief Ground Instructor in case of a FTO which is employing 5 or less instructors. In order to bring the text in paragraph 28 in alignment with the editing practices in JARs, it was agreed to delete the word normally. 7.14 Appendix 1b to JAR-FCL 1.055 : Partial training outside JAA Member States Paragraph (c) has been modified with the purpose to clarify that the acclimatisation flying for IR training conducted outside JAA Members can also been done in other JAA Member States than the one which granted the approval to the FTO. 7.15 Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055 : Additional Requirements for training in FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States As a result of the amendment of JAR-FCL 1.055 paragraph (a)(2) and for the establishment of further requirements for training in FTOs whose location is outside the JAA States, this Appendix has been developed to define the approval process, jurisdiction, training procedures for professional and private licences and associated ratings, requirements for the flight instructors, procedure for the theoretical knowledge instruction and the conduction of theoretical knowledge examinations. 7.16 JAR–FCL 1.065 : State of licence issue The medical examination and assessment shall also be carried out under the authority of the State of licence issue. Although it was thought that this was already covered by the word testing, paragraph (a) has been amended to emphasise that for clarity reasons. 7.17 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.075 : Specifications for flight crew licences Explanatory Note - 6 NPA-FCL 14 The sentence in the licence under item IX of page 3 was inserted with an expectation that JAR-FCL would be implemented at the same time. The FCL committee agreed to change the sentence in order to adapt to the situation. Due to this a change in the cover page is also needed, as proposed, to indicate that the licence is based on JAR-FCL requirements. 8. SUBPART C 8.1 Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 1.125 : Contents of an application form for registration of a facility for PPL instruction The reference to type of aeroplanes has been deleted in item (f) of this appendix, because type rating training is not provided in a registered facility. It was agreed to incorporate the words piston and TMG in item (g). Since a registered facility may provide training for a single-engine piston or touring motor glider class rating. 9. SUBPART D 9.1 JAR-FCL 1.150 : Privileges and conditions Since only the CPL(A) and type rating requirements are mentioned in paragraph (b) a reference to JAR-FCL 1 Subpart E has been added as reference to the IR(A) requirements. 9.2 JAR–FCL 1.155 : Experience and crediting In order to make the document more user-friendly the FCL Committee agreed to amend paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2). The requirements concerning crediting are now specified in the specific training course appendix. 9.3 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(1) : ATP(A) integrated course It was agreed to modify paragraph (4) of this appendix in order to incorporate the crediting requirements. See also 9.2. In order to solve some inconsistencies in several JAR-FCL paragraphs dealing with the “Use of English” paragraph 7 has been adjusted. Explanatory Note - 7 NPA-FCL 14 9.4 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(2) : CPL(A)/IR integrated course As in 9.3 9.5 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(3) : CPL(A) integrated course As in 9.3 9.6 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(4) : CPL(A) modular course In order to cover that an applicant for a CPL(A) modular course may start with the theoretical knowledge instruction before completion of 150 hours flight time as pilot a new sentence has been introduced in paragraph (b). The FCL Committee agreed to modify paragraph 10 in order to specify the credits for applicants holding a valid IR(A) or a valid IR(H) towards the dual instrument instruction time required in the CPL(A) modular course. Paragraph 11 (b) has been amended in order to be more specific concerning the 5 hours night flight instruction. 10. SUBPART E 10.1 JAR-FCL 1.200 : Use of English language See 10.2 10.2 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.200 : IR(H) – Use of English language To overcome some inconsistencies concerning JAR-FCL paragraphs related with the “Use of English” this Appendix has been modified. After a analysis of the problem, it appears that according to the actual text of this Appendix an applicant for a IR may have the ability to use the English language in flight or on the ground, but not in communications through all phases of the flight. In order to prove his/her ability to communicate with other crew members in English during all phases of the flight, including flight preparation, this shall be demonstrated to the Authority. Explanatory Note - 8 NPA-FCL 14 10.3 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.210 : IR(A) – Skill test and proficiency check In order to bring the text in paragraph 9 in alignment with the editing practices in JARs, it was agreed to delete the words normally be required to. 11. 11.1 SUBPART F JAR-FCL 1.215 : Class ratings(A) The Type Rating Working Group proposed and the FCL Committee accepted to amend paragraph (c) with the intention that it is at the discretion of the Authority to establish or regulate the requirements concerning the issue and revalidation/renewal of multi-engine centerline thrust aeroplane ratings. 11.2 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.215 : List of Class of aeroplane AMC-FCL 1.215 has been reclassified and became this new appendix, which contains an updated list of class ratings for aeroplanes. The changes to the list are not highlighted as this would result in the table becoming too difficult to read. 11.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.220 : List of Type of aeroplane The introduction of this new appendix is the result of the reclassification of AMC FCL 1.220. This new appendix contains also an updated list of type ratings for aeroplanes 11.4 AMC FCL 1.220(a) with Appendix: Type Rating assessment and approval of the course for multi-pilot aeroplane Based on the proposal from the Industry and further development by the Type Rating Working Group, the FCL Committee agreed to introduce a new AMC containing means of compliance concerning type rating assessment and course approvals for multi-pilot aeroplane type ratings. This AMC sets out the procedure for the establishment of a type rating. The means of compliance in this AMC concerning the type rating course approval gives additional guidelines regarding type rating Explanatory Note - 9 NPA-FCL 14 course approval when the applicant is seeking credit between 2 aeroplanes. The applied method defines the type rating course content by difference from base aeroplane to the difference aeroplane giving credit for the similarities between the aeroplanes. By using the ODR table the items for which training is required will be identified. The text of this AMC is based on JAR-OPS 1 text, and has been introduced in JAR-FCL 1 in order to cover the procedure for the establishment of a type rating in the area of non-commercial air transportation. 11.5 JAR-FCL 1.240 : Type and class ratings - Requirements On many occasions applicants for a JAR-FCL licence, based on the conversion of a licence of a non-JAA State, wish to transfer those type ratings contained within that non-JAA States’ licence. The Type Rating Working Group considered that a type rating could be issued on the basis of a proficiency check provided the applicant has a minimum level of experience on the type. NPA-FCL 10 introduced a provision for the addition of a type rating obtained outside the JAA Member States to be entered on a JAR-FCL licence, restricted to use on aircraft registered in the non-JAA State. This restriction would be removed after 500 hours experience. The Type Rating Working Group proposed and the FCL Committee endorsed that this experience should also be applied to the transfer of ratings from a non-JAA licence. Therefore a new paragraph (a)(6) was introduced. 11.6 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.240 & 1.295 : Skill test and proficiency check for aeroplane type/class ratings and ATPL It was agreed to modify paragraph 3 in order to separate the Cat II and III privileges from the type rating and ATPL skill test. This to cover that an applicant can fail Section 6 of the type rating skill test/proficiency check and to specify that Section 6 is not part of the ATPL skill test. 11.7 Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 1.240 & 1.295 : Contents of the ATPL/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on multi-pilot aeroplanes The explanation of symbol “X” in paragraph 1 has been adjusted and subsequently in the items 3.2 and 5.2, the wording “an aircraft may not be used for this exercise” has been deleted. 11.8 Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240 : Contents of the class/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on single-engine and multi-engine single-pilot aeroplanes The situation was considered, where a SP aeroplane is required by JAR-OPS to be flown with a crew of 2 pilots and thus the OPC is Explanatory Note - 10 NPA-FCL 14 required to be performed in a two-pilot concept. Since, by JAR-FCL, a re-validation proficiency check is required to be performed in single pilot operation on SP aeroplanes, it will be impossible to combine the two proficiency checks with the result, that two consecutive proficiency must be performed annually. The FCL Committee considered that the addition of this text was needed. 11.9 IEM FCL 1.240(b)(1) & 1.261(c)(2) : Contents of Type Rating training/skill test/proficiency check on multi-pilot aeroplane A new IEM has been created which gives guidelines for the approval of credit(s) for the type rating training and the skill test on multi-pilot aeroplanes, when the applicant is already qualified on a similar type or variant. 11.10 JAR-FCL 1.245 : Type and class ratings – Validity, revalidation and renewal In paragraph(c)(1)(i) cross-references to the applicable appendices have been added. Paragraph (c)(ii) has been amended in order make the text more user friendly. 11.11 JAR–FCL 1.250 : Type rating, multi-pilot – Conditions A new paragraph (b) has been created to facilitate cross-crediting for the MCC course. As mentioned in this requirement a certificate of satisfactory completion of a MCC course is one of the pre-requisites for the training for the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplane. Since a MCC course is essentially a generic course and aims the establishment of a common basis for applicants undergoing training on multi-pilot aircraft , it was agreed to cross-credit the acquisition of MCC knowledge, experience and skill from helicopter to aeroplane. 11.12 JAR-FCL 1.261 – Type and class ratings – Knowledge and flight instruction The Type Rating Working Group considers it essential that some training dedicated purely to MCC concepts is carried out, but that 20 hours is excessive if conducted on the same simulator that will be used on the type rating course. Recognising that not all pilots undertaking multi-pilot type rating training will require MCC training, the FCL Committee accepted that a standard requirement for MCC training is set at a minimum of 10 hours practical training if undertaken as part of an approved type rating course. Explanatory Note - 11 NPA-FCL 14 11.13 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(a) : Theoretical knowledge instruction requirements for skill test/proficiency checking for class/type ratings AMC-FCL 1.261(a) has been partly reclassified and the reclassified text has been incorporated into paragraph 2 of this appendix. It was agreed to delete the words normally in paragraph 3, in order to bring the text in alignment with the editing practices in JARs. 11.14 AMC FCL 1.261(a) : Syllabus of theoretical knowledge instruction for class/type ratings for single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes The first 8 paragraphs have been deleted from this AMC and have been incorporated into Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(a) due to the fractional reclassification of the AMC. 11.15 AMC FCL 1.261(c)(2) : Guidelines for Approval of an Aeroplane Type Rating Course Since Appendix 2 and 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240 contains the practical training and skill test items, the words “and skill test” were added to paragraph 4. 11.16 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (Aeroplane) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.261(d). 11.17 AMC FCL 1.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) Due to the fractional reclassification of this AMC paragraphs 1, 2 and 7 have been moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.261(d) and new paragraph 10 contains the deleted text of IEM FCL 1.261(d). 11.18 IEM FCL 1.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) It was agreed as part of the reclassification exercise of Section 2 to delete this IEM and to move the text to AMC FCL 1.261(d). Explanatory Note - 12 NPA-FCL 14 12. SUBPART H 12.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.300 : Requirements for a specific authorisation for instructors not holding a JAR-FCL licence to instruct in a FTO or TRTO outside JAA Member States In order to align the requisites for type rating instructor with the concept of this Appendix, a new paragraph (b)(ii) was introduced. This restricts the type rating instructor with a specific authorisation to instruct only outside JAA States. 12.2 JAR–FCL 1.330 : FI(A) – Privileges and requirements The FCL Committee agreed to modify paragraph (c) in order to include for a FI(A) the demonstration of ability to instruct at night and the night currency requirement. 12.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.330 & 1.345 : Arrangements for the flight instructor rating (FI(A)) skill test, proficiency check and oral theoretical knowledge examination It was agreed to delete the words normally in paragraph 12, in order to bring the text in alignment with the editing practices in JARs. 12.4 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340 : Flight instructor rating (aeroplane) (FI(A)) course This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.340. 12.5 AMC FCL 1.340 : Flight Instructor rating (Aeroplane) (FI(A)) course Due to the fractional reclassification of this AMC paragraphs 1 through 5 have been moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.340. A new paragraph 11 has been introduced to include instruction for night flying. Explanatory Note - 13 NPA-FCL 14 12.6 JAR–FCL 1.355 : FI(A) – Revalidation and renewal Paragraph (a)(2) has been modified in order to extend the period during which a FI refresher seminar shall be attended for the revalidation of the FI rating. 12.7 JAR-FCL 1.360 : Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) (TRI(MPA)) – Privileges A new paragraph (b) has been introduced for the case a TRI(A) training has only been carried out in a flight simulator. In this case TRI(A) rating will be restricted to exclude emergency/abnormal procedure training in an aircraft. AMC FCL 1.365 paragraph 7 contains the training item in order to remove this restriction. 12.8 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.365 : Course for the type rating instructor rating for multi-pilot aeroplane (TRI) (MPA) This new appendix has been created due to the reclassification of AMC FCL 1.365. Credits for the TRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the TRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. 12.9 AMC FCL 1.365 : Course for the type rating instructor rating for multi-pilot aeroplane (TRI) (MPA) Paragraph 2 has been deleted and the heading of paragraph 7 has been modified with the purpose of being applicable for zero flight time training by a TRI(A). 12.10 JAR-FCL 1.380 : CRI(SPA) – Requirements The reference to the relevant appendices and AMC have been updated in the paragraphs (a)(4), (b)(3) and (b)(4). 12.11 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.380 : Course for the single-pilot multiengine class rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.380. Credits for the CRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the CRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. Explanatory Note - 14 NPA-FCL 14 12.12 Appendix 2 to JAR FCL 1.380 : Course for the single-pilot single engine class rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.380. Credits for the CRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the CRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. 12.13 AMC FCL 1.380 : Course for the single-pilot multi-engine class rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (CRI(SPA)) Paragraphs 1, 3 and 4 have been deleted and partly moved to the Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR-FCL 1.380. 12.14 Appendix 1 to JAR FCL 1.395 : Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (Aeroplane) (IRI(A)) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.395. Credits for the IRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the IRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. 12.15 AMC FCL 1.395 : Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) (IRI(A)) Paragraphs 1 through 3 have been deleted and partly moved to the Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.395. Several items in PART 2 – THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS and PART 3 – FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS have been re-worded with the intention of updating the terminology used. 12.16 JAR–FCL 1.415 : SFI(A) – Revalidation and renewal The FCL Committee considered it necessary to require for the revalidation of a SFI(A) authorisation a proficiency check in addition to the conduction of one simulator session of at least 3 hours as part of a complete type rating/refresher/recurrent training course. For the renewal of the SFI(A) in addition to the existing requirements a proficiency check shall be completed on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. Explanatory Note - 15 NPA-FCL 14 13. SUBPART I 13.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425 : Standardisation arrangements for examiners This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 1.425 13.2 AMC FCL 1.425 : Standardisation arrangements for examiners Paragraphs 2 and 6 through 8 have been moved to the Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425. 13.3 JAR–FCL 1.430 : Examiners – Period of validity A reference has been added to the new Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425. 13.4 JAR–FCL 1.445 : Class rating examiner (aeroplane) (CRE(A)) – Privileges /Requirements It was agreed to modify the requisites for a CRE(A), since a CRI(A) is required to hold a PPL. The modified requirement allows the CRE(A) to exercise the privileges provided he/she holds or has held a professional pilot licence(A) and holds a private pilot licence(A). 14. SUBPART J 14.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.470 : Theoretical knowledge examination subjects / sections and length of examinations – ATPL, CPL and IR The FCL Committee agreed to create this new appendix due to the reclassification of AMC FCL 1.470. This new appendix contains the combined syllabuses for Aeroplanes and Helicopters incorporated into JAR-FCL as a result of NPA-FCL 10, and replaced the existing theoretical knowledge syllabuses. 14.2 IEM FCL 1.480: Distribution of examination questions Since a copy of this IEM is attached to Chapter 10 of the Joint Implementation Procedures for Licensing in the JAA Administrative and Guidance Material, it was decided to delete this IEM from JAR-FCL. Explanatory Note - 16 NPA-FCL 14 14.3 JAR–FCL 1.490 : Pass standards Paragraph (e) has been modified in order to specify that an applicant shall undertake further training before re-entry to the examinations after failing to pass all of the relevant examinations within the time limits specified in JAR-FCL. Explanatory Note - 17 NPA-FCL 14 NPA-FCL 14.2 (Helicopter) 15 SUBPART A 15.1 JAR-FCL 2.001 : Definitions and Abbreviations The definition of co-pilot in JAR-1 is proposed to be changed. The text of JAR-FCL 2.080 paragraph (c)(2), recording of co-pilot flight time, has been used as basis for the agreed definition. 15.2 JAR-FCL 2.005 : Applicability The FCL Committee agreed to incorporate a new paragraph (a)(6), with the intention to reflect in the licence that training had been performed outside the JAA States. This will to indicate that the training has not been performed in accordance with JAR-FCL and mutual recognition of these licences is at the discretion of the JAA Member State concerned. 15.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.005 : Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR-FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State New text was introduced relating to item 2 (Instructors) of this Appendix to allow JAA Member States’ instructor to instruct for JAR-FCL licences and/or ratings without a JAR-FCL licence/rating(s). This to facilitate the transition to JAR-FCL requisites. 15.4 AMC FCL 2.005 & 2.015 : Knowledge requirements for the issue of a JAR–FCL licence on the basis of a national licence issued by a JAA Member State or for the validation of pilot licences of nonJAA States References to JAR-FCL 2 Subpart H paragraphs and appendices have been introduced in order to cover the knowledge requirements, as indicated in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.005 paragraph 2, for instructors whising to replace their national instructor rating to a JAR-FCL rating. 15.5 JAR-FCL 2.015 : Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) have been amended, this cover that a new paragraph related with the validation of PPL/IR has been introduced in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.015. Explanatory Note - 18 NPA-FCL 14 The words professional and IR have been added to paragraph (c)(1) to emphasise the introduction of a new paragraph (c)(2) containing a reference to the requirements for the conversion of a PPL. A new paragraph (c)(2) has been introduced with the reference to the new developed Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.015, this Appendix contains the requirements for the conversion of a PPL(H) issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL licence. 15.6 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.015 : Minimum requirements for the validation of pilot licences of non-JAA States The FCL Committee agreed that it was necessary to introduce a new requirement containing the minimum requirements for the validation of PPL(H) with IR(H) of non-JAA Member States. Therefore the new paragraphs (3)(a) through (e) have been developed, and incorporated into this Appendix. 15.7 Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.015 : Conversion of a PPL(H) issued by a non-JAA Member State to a JAR-FCL PPL(H) When discussing JAR-FCL 2.015(c) and the arrangement, the FCL Committee agreed that for PPL this procedure was not needed and therefore agreed to requirements for a conversion of a PPL. 15.8 JAR-FCL 2.016 : Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA Member State Since it was considered that a pilot with a large experience should not be expected to undergo further approved training before undertaking the theoretical knowledge examinations and skill test, the decision was taken to revise this paragraph. In addition the licence holder shall contain already a valid multi-pilot type rating for the helicopter to be used for the ATPL skill test. 15.9 JAR–FCL 2.030 :Arrangements for testing It was agreed to re-arrange the wording of paragraph (c) in order to highlight that the Authority will establish a list of authorised examiners and that this list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within that JAA member State. 15.10 JAR-FCL 2.055 : Training organisations and registered facilities Explanatory Note - 19 NPA-FCL 14 Paragraph (a)(2) has been amended as a subsequence of previous NPA consultations and the discussions in the FCL Committee and JAA Committee. It was acknowledged that the place of business requirement in the JAR-FCL system is intended to define the jurisdiction of a JAA Member State and the competence of that JAA Member States’ Authority to grant an approval to a FTO and/or TRTO. In this perspective it is of major importance to establish which Authority is responsible for the enforcement of JAR-FCL requirements and therefore adjacent to the requirement a corresponding Appendix has been developed (Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055). For this purpose, 2 ways have been created for the granting of an approval to FTOs wishing to offer training for licences and associated ratings whose principal place of business and registered office is located outside the JAA Member States. Option (1), a bilateral arrangement should be developed between the JAA and non-JAA Authority in which the FTO has its principal place of business in order to define the participation of that non-JAA Authority in the approval process and in the regulatory oversight. Option (2), application of Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 1.055 in which the approval procedure, jurisdiction and the mode of operation of that FTO is specified. 15.11 Appendix 1a to JAR-FCL 2.055 : Flying Training Organisations for pilot licences and ratings A new sentence has been introduced in paragraph 11 with the aim to combine the positions of Head of Training and Chief Flight Instructor or Chief Flight Instructor and Chief Ground Instructor in case of a FTO which is employing 5 or less instructors. 15.12 Appendix 1b to JAR-FCL 2.055 : Partial Training outside JAA Member States Paragraph (c) has been modified with the purpose to clarify that the acclimatisation flying for IR training conducted outside JAA Members can also been done in other JAA Member States than the one which granted the approval to the FTO. 15.13 Appendix 1c to JAR-FCL 2.055 : Additional Requirements for training in FTOs whose principal place of business and registered office are located outside the JAA States As a result of the amendment of JAR-FCL 2.055 paragraph (a)(2) and for the establishment of further requirements for training in FTOs whose location is outside the JAA States, this Appendix has been developed to define the approval process, jurisdiction, training procedures for professional and private licences and associated ratings, requirements for the flight instructors, procedure for the theoretical knowledge instruction and the conduction of theoretical knowledge examinations. Explanatory Note - 20 NPA-FCL 14 Explanatory Note - 21 NPA-FCL 14 15.14 JAR–FCL 2.065 : State of licence issue Paragraph (a) has been amended to emphasise that the medical examination and assessment shall also be carried out under the authority of the State of licence issue. Although it was thought that this was already covered by the word testing. 15.15 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.075 : Specifications for flight crew licences The sentence in the licence under item IX of page 3 was inserted with an expectation that JAR-FCL would be implemented at the same time. The FCL committee agreed to change the sentence in order to adapt to the situation. Due to this a change in the cover page is also needed, as proposed, to indicate that the licence is based on JAR-FCL requirements. 16. SUBPART C 16.1 Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 1.125 : Contents of an application form for registration of a facility for PPL instruction It was proposed by the FCL Helicopter subcommittee and the FCL Committee accepted to incorporate in item g the wording PPL(H) with associated single-engine type rating”. This in order to clarify that at a registered facility on type rating training shall be provided in association with the PPL(H) training. 17. SUBPART D 17.1 JAR-FCL 2.150 : Privileges and conditions Since only the CPL(H) and type rating requirements are mentioned in paragraph (b) a reference to JAR-FCL 2 Subpart E has been added as reference to the IR(H) requirements. 17.2 JAR–FCL 2.155 : Experience and crediting In order to make the document more user-friendly the FCL Committee agreed to amend paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2). The requirements concerning crediting are now specified in the specific training course appendix. Explanatory Note - 22 NPA-FCL 14 17.3 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(1) : ATP(H) integrated course It was agreed to modify paragraph (4) of this appendix in order to incorporate the crediting requirements. The 45 hours of credit in case a night qualification has been obtain is raised to 50 hours in order to align with the increased dual instruction time requirements of the helicopter night qualification as mentioned in NPA-FCL 12. In order to solve some inconsistencies in several JAR-FCL paragraphs dealing with the “Use of English” paragraph 7 has been adjusted. 17.4 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(2) : CPL(H) integrated course As in 17.3 17.5 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.160 & 2.165(a)(3) : CPL(H) modular course The FCL Committee agreed to modify paragraph 10 in order to specify the credits for applicants holding a valid IR(H) or a valid IR(A) towards the dual instrument instruction time required in the CPL(H) modular course. Paragraph 11 has been amended in order to be more specific concerning the 5 hours night flight instruction. 18. SUBPART E 18.1 JAR-FCL 2.180 : Privileges and conditions Paragraph (a) has been re-arranged in order to make the text more user-friendly and to create a reference to new Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295. 18.2 JAR-FCL 2.200 : Use of English Language See 18.3 18.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.200 : IR(H) – Use of English language To overcome some inconsistencies concerning JAR-FCL paragraphs related with the “Use of English” this Appendix has been modified. Explanatory Note - 23 NPA-FCL 14 After a analysis of the problem, it appears that according to the actual text of this Appendix an applicant for a IR may have the ability to use the English language in flight or on the ground, but not in communications through all phases of the flight. In order to prove his/her ability to communicate with other crew members in English during all phases of the flight, including flight preparation, this shall be demonstrated to the Authority. 18.4 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.205 : IR(H) – Modular flying training course Paragraphs 2 and 11 have been modified to cover the introduction of the Night Qualification Course as proposed in NPA-FCL 12. 19. SUBPART F 19.1 JAR-FCL 2.240 : Type ratings – Requirements On many occasions applicants for a JAR-FCL licence, based on the conversion of a licence of a non-JAA State, wish to transfer those type ratings contained within that non-JAA States’ licence. The Type Rating Working Group considered that a type rating could be issued on the basis of a proficiency check provided the applicant has a minimum level of experience on the type. NPA-FCL 12 introduced a provision for the addition of a type rating obtained outside the JAA Member States to be entered on a JAR-FCL licence, restricted to use on aircraft registered in the non-JAA State. This restriction would be removed after 500 hours experience. The Type Rating Working Group proposed and the FCL Committee endorsed that this experience should also be applied to the transfer of ratings from a non-JAA licence. Therefore a new paragraph (a)(6) was introduced. 19.2 Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 : Skill test and proficiency check for helicopter type ratings and ATPL It was agreed to modify paragraph 3 in order to separate the Cat II and III privileges from the type rating and ATPL skill test and to cover that a new Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295 has been introduced. Explanatory Note - 24 NPA-FCL 14 19.3 Appendix 2 to JAR–FCL 2.240 & 2.295 : Contents of the ATPL/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on multi-pilot helicopters It was agreed to delete the OTD abbreviation in paragraph 2 and through the practical training part of the appendix. This because a specific JAR-STD document for OTDs has not been developed yet. Items 1.1 and 1.2 of section 1 has become mandatory items for the skill test/proficiency check. Items 3.2.2 and 3.4.5 has been considered not to be mandatory. Section 5 has been deleted and becomes a new Appendix 4 to JARFCL 2.240 & 2.295 as a specific appendix covering the requirements to obtain an additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60m (200ft) (Cat II/III). 19.4 Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 2.240 : Contents of the type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check for single-engine and multi-engine single-pilot helicopters Items 1.1 and 1.2 of section 1 has become mandatory items for the skill test/proficiency check. 19.5 Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295 : Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60m (200ft) (CAT II/III) It was agreed to create a new Appendix 4 to JAR-FCL 2.224 & 2.295 concerning CAT II/III authorisations. This new appendix contains the moved text from section 5 of Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295. The HSC proposed to separate section 5 from Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295 in order to create a specific appendix, because CAT II/III authorisation in addition to a type rating is actually not a routine within the helicopter area. 19.6 JAR–FCL 2.250 : Type rating, multi-pilot – Conditions A new paragraph (b) has been created to facilitate cross-crediting for the MCC course. As mentioned in this requirement a certificate of satisfactory completion of a MCC course is one of the pre-requisites for the training for the first type rating on multi-pilot helicopter. Since a MCC course is in essence a generic course and aims the establishment of a common Explanatory Note - 25 NPA-FCL 14 basis for applicants undergoing training on multi-pilot aircraft , it was agreed to cross-credit the acquisition of MCC knowledge, experience and skill from aeroplane to helicopter. 19.7 JAR-FCL 2.261 : Type ratings – Knowledge and flight instruction The HSC proposed and the FCL Committee agreed to amend paragraph (d)(1)(ii) with the intention of clarifying that PPL(H) or CPL(H) holders wishing to obtain a multi-pilot helicopter type rating are required to complete a MCC course. 19.8 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(a) : Theoretical knowledge instruction requirements for skill test/proficiency checking for type ratings AMC FCL 2.261(a) has been partly reclassified and the reclassified text has been incorporated into paragraph 2 of this appendix. 19.9 AMC FCL 2.261(a) : Syllabus of theoretical knowledge instruction for type ratings for single and multi-engine helicopters The first 8 paragraphs have been deleted from this AMC and have been incorporated into Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(a) due to the fractional reclassification of the AMC. 19.10 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (helicopter) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 2.261(d). 19.11 AMC FCL 2.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (helicopter) Due to the fractional reclassification of this AMC paragraphs 1, 2 and 7 have been moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.261(d) and new paragraph 10 contains the deleted text of IEM FCL 2.261(d). 19.12 IEM FCL 2.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (helicopter) It was agreed as part of the reclassification exercise of Section 2 to delete this IEM and to move the text to AMC FCL 2.261(d). Explanatory Note - 26 NPA-FCL 14 20. SUBPART H 20.1 JAR–FCL 2.330 : FI(H) – Privileges and requirements The FCL Committee agreed to modify paragraph (c) with the intention of including for a FI(H) the demonstration of ability to instruct at night and the night currency requirement. 20.2 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340 : Flight instructor rating (helicopter) (FI(H)) course This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 2.340. 20.3 AMC FCL 2.340 : Flight Instructor rating (helicopter)(FI(H)) course Paragraph 1 through 5 have been deleted from this AMC and moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.340. In the FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS item 2 has been editorially corrected to read : Preparation before and action after flight. 20.4 JAR–FCL 2.355 : FI(H) – Revalidation and renewal Paragraph (a)(2) has been modified in order to extend the period during which a FI refresher seminar shall be attended for the revalidation of the FI rating. 20.5 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.365 : Course for the type rating instructor (helicopter) for, as applicable, single or multi-pilot helicopters certificated for VFR or IFR operation (TRI(H)) This new Appendix has been created due to the reclassification of AMC FCL 2.365. Credits for the TRI(H) Teaching and Learning part of the TRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. 20.6 AMC FCL 2.365 : Course for the type rating instructor (helicopter) for, as applicable, single or multi-pilot helicopters certificated for VFR or IFR operation (TRI(H)) Explanatory Note - 27 NPA-FCL 14 Paragraphs 2 and 5 through 7 have been deleted. It was decided to modify paragraph 3 in order to use the contents of the practical training in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295 and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.240 as contents of the flight training exercises of the TRI(H) course. 20.7 Appendix 1 to JAR FCL 2.395 : Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 2.395. Credits for the IRI(A) Teaching and Learning part of the IRI course has been introducted in paragraph 2. 20.8 AMC FCL 2.395 : Course for the instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) (IRI(H)) Paragraphs 1 through 3 have been deleted and partly moved to the Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.395. Several items in PART 2 – THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS and PART 3 – FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS have been re-worded with the intention of updating the terminology used. 20.9 JAR–FCL 2.415 : SFI(H) – Revalidation and renewal The FCL Committee agreed to require for the revalidation of a SFI(H) authorisation a proficiency check in addition to the conduction of one simulator session of at least 3 hours as part of a complete type rating/refresher/recurrent training course. For the renewal of the SFI(H) in addition to the existing requirements a proficiency check shall be completed on a flight simulator of the appropriate type. 21. SUBPART I 21.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425 : Standardisation arrangements for examiners This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 2.425 Explanatory Note - 28 NPA-FCL 14 21.2 AMC FCL 2.425 : Standardisation arrangements for examiners Paragraphs 2 and 6 through 8 have been moved to the Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425. 21.3 JAR–FCL 2.430 : Examiners – Period of validity A reference has been added to the new Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425. 22. SUBPART J 22.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.470 : Theoretical knowledge examination subjects / sections and length of examinations ATPL, CPL and IR The FCL Committee agreed to create this new appendix due to the reclassification of AMC FCL 2.470. This new appendix contains the combined syllabuses for Aeroplanes and Helicopters incorporated into JAR-FCL 2 as proposed in NPA-FCL 12, and replaced the existing theoretical knowledge syllabuses. 22.2 JAR–FCL 2.490 : Pass standards Paragraph (e) has been modified in order to specify that an applicant shall undertake further training before re-entry to the examinations after failing to pass all of the relevant examinations within the time limits specified in JAR-FCL 2. Explanatory Note - 29 NPA-FCL 14 NPA-FCL 14.3 (Medical) 23 Subpart A Paragraphs 3.001 through 3.065 are reproductions of JAR-FCL Part 1 (Aeroplane) and therefore all changes, deletions and additions proposed for these paragraphs in NPA 14.1 (Aeroplane) apply to JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) as well. In the following, reference is made to the detailed explanations given in section 7 of this explanatory note. Appendices to paragraphs 3.001 through 3.065, if any, are not reproduced in JAR-FCL 3. 23.1 JAR-FCL 3.001: Definitions and Abbreviations The definition co-pilot is proposed to be added as a reproduction of JAR-FCL 1.001 (see 7.1). 23.2 JAR-FCL 3.005: Applicability A new paragraph (a)(6) on training outside JAA Member States is proposed for JAR-FCL 1, 2 and 4 and is reproduced in JAR-FCL 3. 23.3 JAR-FCL 3.015: Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Explanation for the changes to paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2) and (c)(1) as well as for introduction of paragraph (c)(2) are to be found in 7.5. 23.4 JAR-FCL 3.016: Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA Member State This paragraph has been added to JAR-FCL 1 during NPA 10 and has now been revised. Justification is provided in 7.8 of this Explanatory Note. The paragraph will be reproduced in JAR-FCL 3. 23.5 JAR-FCL 3.026: Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 New paragraph proposed to be added to JAR-FCL 1 and consequently to JAR-FCL 3. Justification is offered in 7.5. 23.6 JAR-FCL 3.030: Arrangements for testing Adjustments to paragraph (c) are detailed in 7.6 Explanatory Note - 30 NPA-FCL 14 23.7 JAR-FCL 3.065: State of Licence Issue This paragraph is "intentionally left blank" in JAR-FCL 3. It is proposed to add it now in full text, reproduced from JAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane), because of an amendment which clarifies that in addition to all training and testing for licence issue the medical assessment and examination shall also be carried out under the authority of the State of licence issue. This was the intended understanding of the paragraph and previously believed to be covered by the word "testing". 23.8 JAR-FCL 3.090: Authorised Aeromedical Examiners Paragraph (a) describes the designation and authorisation of AMEs resident within and outside JAA Member States. It is proposed that AMEs resident in non-JAA States may not only be authorised to conduct standard revalidation and renewal examinations but may also issue initial Class 2 medical certificates. 23.9 IEM FCL 3.095(c): Application form for a medical certificate The document is proposed to be amended to clarify that the applicant gives consent to releasing his medical data, if necessary, to the Aeromedical Section of another JAA Member State only and not to any Aeromedical Section outside JAA Member States. This was the original intent of the text but the wording was open for interpretation. 23.10 JAR-FCL 3.100: Medical Certificates If an applicant does not fully meet the medical standards as set out in JAR-FCL 3, Subparts B and C, but is granted a variation, this fact shall be stated on the medical certificate. JAR-FCL 100(e) is proposed to be amended, adding that the variation will be entered also on the licence at the discretion of the Authority. This would be following a change in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.075 which was amended in NPA-FCL 7: "Any medical endorsements (...) will be entered on the medical certificate and at the discretion of the Authority in the licence." 23.11 IEM-FCL 3.100: Medical Certificates The list of limitations, conditions and variations is proposed to be amended to include a new limitation No 3 (VML) for eye correction with multifocal lenses which correct for defective distant, intermediate and near vision. An explanation on how to understand and make use of VML is also proposed. The explanations for limitations No 2 (VDL) and 4 (VNL), both on limited eye sight as well, have been slightly amended Explanatory Note - 31 NPA-FCL 14 for better understanding of the use of different corrective lenses that may be needed. 24 Subparts B & C 24.1 JAR-FCL 3.175 Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases (Subpart B, Class 1) JAR-FCL 3.295 Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases (Subpart C, Class 2) In subparagraphs (e) the text for Class 1 in Subpart B and for Class 2 in Subpart C is identical and deals with obese pilots. Obesity may interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence, but the original paragraph (e) was open to interpretation. It is proposed to insert the Body Mass Index to explain the limit of obesity that can be accepted without further examinations and above which a cardiovascular review is needed for safety reasons. 24.2 Appendix 4 to Subparts B & C Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine disorders (1): Initial certification is proposed to be possible after clinical evaluation of a metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction. (3): Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, used for treatment of Diabetes mellitus, are proposed to be accepted for a Class 1 (OML) and/or a Class 2 unrestricted medical certificate. Sulfonylureas are considered as safe for Class 2 (OSL) re-certification. (4): This new subparagraph explains possibilities of re-certification (Class 1) or certification (Class 2) for applicants with Addison's disease. The original paragraph 4 has been renumbered as (5) and remains unchanged. 24.3 JAR-FCL 3.210 Neurological requirements (Subpart B, Class 1) JAR-FCL 3.330 Neurological requirements (Subpart C, Class 2) In subparagraphs (b) the text for Class 1 in Subpart B and for Class 2 in Subpart C is identical and deals with disturbance of consciousness and cerebral dysfunctions. The proposed text changes in (b)(2) and (4) are to clarify the conditions that need particular attention by the AME. New subparagraph (b)(5) adds spinal or peripheral nerve injury to the list of these conditions. Explanatory Note - 32 NPA-FCL 14 JAR-FCL 3.330 (c): For Class 2 the requirement of electroencephalography, whether indicated by the applicant's history or on clinical grounds, has been deleted. 24.4 Appendix 11 to Subparts B & C Neurological requirements Changes in Appendix 11 are meant to provide a better understanding of re-/certification of applicants with neurological disorders. Explanations are added for more cases where special investigations may lead to a fit assessment by the AMS. A renumbering was necessary because of the inclusion of spinal or peripheral nerve injury. Malignant intracerebral tumours may lead to an incapacitation or the pilot. Therefore it is proposed to state in subparagraph (8) that these tumours are disqualifying. 24.5 JAR-FCL 3.250 Oncology (Subpart B, Class 1) JAR-FCL 3.370 Oncology (Subpart C, Class 2) The MSC considered it necessary to add a new paragraph on oncology because until now JAR-FCL 3 did not contain requirements for the medical assessment of pilots who contracted a malignant disease. At the moment there are only guidelines giving information about fitness/unfitness after treatment of a malignant disease in the Manual. The text of the new requirements is the same for Class 1 and Class 2 and indicates that any primary or secondary malignant tumour or treatment of the malignancy shall not interfere with the safe exercise of the priviledges of the licence. Any fit/unfit assesment will be by the AMS. 24.6 Appendix 19 to Subparts B & C Oncology requirements This new Appendix is proposed to provide the AMS with supplemental information on how to assess a pilot after a malignancy was diagnosed and treated. 25 IEM FCL 3, B & C - JAA MANUAL OF CIVIL AVIATION MEDICINE 25.1 Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine systems Explanatory Note - 33 NPA-FCL 14 The revision of this chapter is based on medical advancements over the last 10 years and contains new procedures to evaluate diseases of the metabolic, nutritional and endocrine system which may lead to re/certification of a pilot, and more treatments considered safe while exercising the privileges of a licence have been added. The language has been adapted to current medical standard and some editorial changes are introduced to facilitate understanding of the chapter. It is reproduced in full length in this NPA 14-3 because omission of unchanged paragraphs could lead to misinterpretations. 25.2 Aviation Neurology The revision of this chapter is based on medical advancements over the last 10 years and contains new procedures to evaluate neurological diseases which may lead to re-/certification of a pilot, and more treatments considered safe while exercising the privileges of a licence have been added. The language has been adapted to current medical standard and some editorial changes are introduced to facilitate understanding of the chapter. It is reproduced in full length in this NPA 14-3 because omission of unchanged paragraphs could lead to misinterpretations. 25.3 Aviation Otorhinolaryngology On pages 155, 156, 158, 159 and 160 reference is made to pneumatic othoscopy which is a special examination technique to obtain a threedimensional impression of the ear drum. This test is not mentioned in Section 1 of JAR-FCL 3 but the present text of the Manual may give the impression that pneumatic othoscopy has to be performed nevertheless. The proposed changes are intended to clarify that pneumatic othoscopy is a test that will be performed only with special indications. 25.4 Medication and Flying An addition to the last paragraph of the introduction of this chapter is proposed to allow quick consideration of eventually new therapeutic agents by the MSC and subsequently open a possibility to introduce them as soon as possible. Explanatory Note - 34 NPA-FCL 14 NPA-FCL 14.4 (Flight Engineers) 25. SUBPART A 25.1 JAR–FCL 4.001: Definitions and Abbreviations The definition of co-pilot in JAR-1 is proposed to be changed. The text of JAR-FCL 1.080 paragraph (c)(2), recording of co-pilot flight time, has been used as basis for the agreed definition. 25.2 JAR-FCL 4.005 Explanation is given in 7.2 25.3 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.005: Minimum requirements for the issue of a JAR-FCL licence/authorisation on the basis of a national licence/authorisation issued in a JAA Member State Explanation is offered in 7.3 25.4 JAR-FCL 4.015: Acceptance of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates Paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1) have been reworded according to JARFCL 1 (Aeroplane). 25.5 JAR-FCL 4.016: Credit given to a holder of a licence issued by a non-JAA Member State The explanation as provided in 7.8 for pilots applies accordingly for flight engineers holding a licence of a non-JAA Member State. 25.6 JAR-FCL 4.026: Recent experience for pilots not operating in accordance with JAR-OPS 1 Paragraph is proposed to be added to JAR-FCL 4 (Flight Engineers) as a reproduction from FAR-FCL 1 (Aeroplane). Explanatory Note - 35 NPA-FCL 14 25.7 JAR-FCL 4.030: Arrangements for testing Paragraph (c)(1) has been reworded according to JAR-FCL 1, paragraph 1.030(c)(1). Justification: see 7.10 of this Explanatory Note. 25.8 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.075 : Specifications for flight crew licences Changes of text in the standard JAA licence are proposed and explanation is to be found in 7.14. 26 SUBPART D 26.1 Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 4.160 : Use of English Language See 10.2 27 SUBPART F 27.1 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.220: List of Type of aeroplane The list has been updated and reclassified as an Appendix due to consideration of JAR 11. 27.2 JAR-FCL 4.240: Type ratings - Requirements A new paragraph (a)(4) has been added dealing with transfer of a type rating contained in a non-JAA State's licence when converting that licence into a JAA licence. Detailed explanation is in 11.5 of this Explanatory Note. 27.3 Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 4.240: Contents of F/E Type rating/Training/Skill Test and proficiency check on aeroplanes requiring a minimum crew of three The text has been adapted to editing practices in JAR-FCL. 27.4 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(a): Theoretical knowledge instruction for skill test/proficiency checking for type ratings Explanatory Note - 36 NPA-FCL 14 Part of the content of the theoretical knowledge instruction has been reclassified according to JAR 11 and the main parts have been relocated from AMC FCL 4.261(a) to this Appendix. 27.5 AMC FCL 4.261(a): Syllabus of theoretical knowledge instruction for type ratings for multi-engine aeroplanes After reclassification of the theoretical knowledge syllabus the detailed list of subjects remains in this AMC while the main parts have been moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(a). 27.6 Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d): Multi-crew co-operation course (Aeroplane) This new appendix has been created due to the fractional reclassification of AMC FCL 4.261(d). 27.7 AMC FCL 4.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) Due to the fractional reclassification of this AMC paragraphs 1, 2 and 7 have been moved to Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.261(d) and new paragraph 10 contains the deleted text of IEM FCL 4.261(d). 27.8 IEM FCL 4.261(d) : Multi-crew co-operation course (aeroplane) As part of the reclassification exercise of Section 2, it is proposed to delete this IEM and to move the text to AMC FCL 4.261(d). 28 SUBPART H 28.1 AMC FCL 4.365: Course for type rating instructor rating for Flight Engineers (TRI(E)) Paragraph 2 of this AMC deals with course administration which is proposed to be deleted in all instructor courses of JAR-FCL 1, 2 and 4. The heading of paragraph 6 has been amended to include zero flight time training by TRI(E)). 28.2 JAR-FCL 4.415: SFI(E) Revalidation and renewal For revalidation of a SFI(E) authorisation a proficiency check is required according to JAR-FCL 4.415(a)(2). This proficiency check as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 4.415 has now been added to the Explanatory Note - 37 NPA-FCL 14 requirements to be met in case of renewal of a SFI(E) authorisation after the licence has lapsed. Explanatory Note - 38 NPA-FCL 14

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